Actually, every one of the above twelve statements about the Godhead can be understood in a way to be in complete harmony with Mormon doctrine.
That, which I made red is a logical gap the size of the Grand Canyon. IOW, your words indicate that through the manipulation of words, and the usage of Christian terms to mean non-christian things you can make the Bible "to be in harmony" with the BoM. By doing that, we wind up with Jabberwocky " `Twas brillig, and the slithy toves
Did gyre and gimble in the wabe:..."
In realty, there is nothing in the BoM's version of jesus christ which can be directly supported by the Bible. Plainly, Jesus was not exalted through eternal progression.
I do have a hard time understanding, however, why someone who believes the Bible to be the complete word of God would reference a creed of man to describe the God of the Bible rather than the Bible itself. This seems very contradictory to me.
The issue of the creeds is a derail. However, since you brought it up, I challenge you to post which of the 12 statements of the Apostle's Creed is NOT supported directly from Scripture.
You are changing the English language to mean what you want it to mean in order to prove your point. First of all, I we have been using the word became, not become. There is a big difference. Became means that something was once different that it IS now. The word IS only refers to the the present status of the subject and is completely neutral as to what the subject was or will be.
You, sir are making a difference where there is no distinction. "Become" and "became" are the same verb, but their tenses differ; one is present tense, and the other is past tense.
By Grace said:
↑
- Nephi 25:2323
- For we labor diligently to write, to persuade our children, and also our brethren, to believe in Christ, and to be reconciled to God; for we know that it is by grace that we are saved, after all we can do.
Grammatically, your interpolation is impossible given the syntax of that verse. The word "after" means "subsequent to" and means that "grace kicks in AFTER we do..." I do not know why you are trying to rewrite what is in the BoM.
I gave you a very reasonable alternate interpretation, which you refuse to even consider. What more can I say.
Not quite so. What you did was the same thing as you said above
can be understood in a way... and you have manipulated the one verse to make it say what you wish it said. OTOH, I gave you a simple, plain English version of both your verse, plus the Bible and I also gave you SEVERAL OTHER VERSES from BoM, all of which say the same thing as 2 Nephi 25:23 . Therefore, by the preponderance of contravening verses from your BoM, there is no way that anyone can manipulate the plain English meanings of those verses to mean anything other than what they say.
Every commentary on this verse [ John 3:5.] written in the first 1000+ years of Christianity interprets this to mean that water baptism is required for entrance into the Kingdom of Heaven.
CFR
Please supply your source for such a statement
Here is the verse in context. Jesus does NOT teach the necessity of baptism for salvation, otherwise He would have said so.
John 3: 3 Jesus answered and said unto him, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born again, he cannot see the kingdom of God.
4 Nicodemus saith unto him, How can a man be born when he is old? can he enter the second time into his mother's womb, and be born?
5 Jesus answered, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.
If that were so, then Jesus would be teaching a heresy called "baptismal regeneration"; and that would be contrary to what happened at His baptism by John. John recognized Him as the Son of God before the baptism, calling Jesus "The Lamb slain before the foundation of the Earth"
Please read this from John 1:
John 1:25 And they asked him, and said unto him, Why baptizest thou then, if thou be not that Christ, nor Elias, neither that prophet?
26 John answered them, saying, I baptize with water: but there standeth one among you, whom ye know not;
27 He it is, who coming after me is preferred before me, whose shoe's latchet I am not worthy to unloose.
28 These things were done in Bethabara beyond Jordan, where John was baptizing.
29 The next day John seeth Jesus coming unto him, and saith, Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world.
30 This is he of whom I said, After me cometh a man which is preferred before me: for he was before me.
31 And I knew him not: but that he should be made manifest to Israel, therefore am I come baptizing with water.
32 And John bare record, saying, I saw the Spirit descending from heaven like a dove, and it abode upon him.
33 And I knew him not: but he that sent me to baptize with water, the same said unto me, Upon whom thou shalt see the Spirit descending, and remaining on him, the same is he which baptizeth with the Holy Ghost.
There is no way that this will support any Mormon teaching about their jesus christ and baptism.