S
savedbygrace57
Guest
strange:
But yet, the thought of what that word means is taught to exist in the bible, yet as you say, that word does not exist, so why does its implications exist ?
I have read through the most evangelistic book in the bible, the book of acts, and not once is it stated that Christ died for all men without exception, in fact, its never stated that God loved anyone in that book. The only books we find the Love of God having been revealed to people, or His death having been specifically for people, are those who had believed.
There is no evidence in scripture that supports Christ died for any that do not believe in Him.
You're asking for a word that doesnt exist in the Bible.
But yet, the thought of what that word means is taught to exist in the bible, yet as you say, that word does not exist, so why does its implications exist ?
I have read through the most evangelistic book in the bible, the book of acts, and not once is it stated that Christ died for all men without exception, in fact, its never stated that God loved anyone in that book. The only books we find the Love of God having been revealed to people, or His death having been specifically for people, are those who had believed.
There is no evidence in scripture that supports Christ died for any that do not believe in Him.