I will have to express my support for what TG said. Verses 11-12 do not refer to Judiazers. It simply refers to the Jews themselves. But that is not the point. Even if the verses actually do refer to the Judiazers, the principle that salvation is not by the cooperation of human works and divine righteousness is a correct reading of the verses. It applies do Judiazers, Gentiles, Jews, and everyone.
The comparison is with Judaizers, that is perfectly clear. Paul is comparing the circumised with the uncircumcised. The point is that THAT ACT THAT THEY BOAST does not save.
But be that as it may, the correct reading says nothing about cooperation, it talks about boasting in ONE'S OWN WORK. Nothing is said about the level of synergism in an action. You are reading your theology into the text (which I earlier called "a priori" presumption.)
Francis, do you think you might have offered a canard here? I am certain you did not mean to offer a canard, but it is so easy for Roman Catholics and the Reformed to talk right past each other.
That is true, we do, and I have often stated that...
You are speaking of the necessity of Grace. I don't see TG as denying the necessity of Grace. It seems to me that TG is asserting the sufficiency of Grace. If one asserts the sufficiency of Grace in and of itself, that does not deny the necessity of Grace.
I am not sure what you mean by "necessity of grace". Grace is not "necessary", since it is a freely given gift.
Concerning boasting.... If God's grace is not totally sufficient and irresistibly leads to faith, and if Gods grace is merely given equally to the whole world, then I can brag that at least I cooperated with the grace of God in salvation. When I get to heaven, and stand next the the person who is not allowed into heaven, I can "boast" that at least I worked with the grace of God and did not resist it. Where as the poor fool next to me that resisted God's grace deserves whtat he gets.
I never said God's grace is given "equally". I said in each case, it was sufficient. Maybe I have "5 units" and you have "10 units" of grace. But in every case, it is sufficient to save. Otherwise, we have a God who unjustly condemns, since we know that merit does not earn heaven. Boasting is not always a bad thing, since Paul also speaks of boasting, being in Christ. The meaning of "in Christ" clearly implies a human-divine action at work, since Paul constantly provides warnings to Christians not to fall away from their calling and REMAIN in Christ. This must then be a human choice at some level, no doubt aided by God.
Boasting can be in a group. Have you ever heard "our team is the best?" Same thing as God and I did it!
Paul does the same thing, boasting of being on "Jesus' team"... He apparently chooses to remain in Christ, noting that if he doesn't, he'll be disqualified.
I have no idea if TG assumed what he wrote "a Priori." I doubt it because many who take a position on the "sufficiency of Grace" do so on an exegetical basis.
That remains begging the question, because the point of "a priori" presumption is that one reads a particular idea into the text that is not there. The text, alone, does not definitively state "x only" or "x, not y". You and I can read the exact same text and come to a different conclusion, based upon our background, traditions, and so forth. Thus, my comment on Ephesians 2 towards Tailgunner. One does not HAVE to interpret those Scriptures in that manner. ESPECIALLY if the verses say nothing about human cooperation moved by God. They speak of boasting in one's OWN works.
The Reformed teaching seems unnatural, against intuition, and if anything it is opposite an "a priori" assumption.
You are confusing what the idea of "a priori" means. You read the Scriptures through the lense of Calvin's anthropology, which establishes the background for your reading of Ephesians 2. Nowhere does it say that man does not cooperate with God, it says we cannot boast, it is not entirely our doing where we can obligate God. I cannot make God owe me because I circumcised myself (v. 11-12)
First the reference to the sheep, and the a few additions. Excuse the listing of verses, I hope it is appropriate here.
John 10:11 “I am the good shepherd. The good shepherd lays down his life for the sheep."
Yet again, your "a priori" presumptions force you to insert the word "ONLY" into the above statement.
Hebrews 9:28 "so Christ was sacrificed once to take away the sins of many;
"Polous" here does not give a definitive indication that the number is limited. Verse 27 should give you a clue that it isn't, though, since it is part of the same sentence, and all men will die and be judged, so it would appear the context would again refer to all men... "Many" can just refer to "a lot" without comment on limitation.
Ephesians 5:25 "Husbands, love your wives, just as Christ loved the church and gave himself up for her "
Again, a priori addition of "ONLY". Conducting an exegesis of this passage does not necessitate inserting "only", does it...?
We DO have a variety of verses that say that Christ's death was for the sake of redemption of all of mankind. Thus, to remain true to the analogy of the faith, the entire Scriptures, we cannot add words to passages and ignore others when conducting theology.
Regards