Not_Now.Soon
Member
One last thing about this parable is that though Jesus gives this parable and explains the meaning, the explaination is seperated by the apstoles asking for an explaination and Jesus first explaining why he speaks in parables. Since this is done in all of the gospels that hold this parable I think the explaination for why Jesus speaks in parables relates to this parable of how the Word is spread and reacted to people.
In the explaination Jesus says that he speaks this way to fufill a prophesy in Isaiah.
“Though seeing, they do not see; though hearing, they do not hear or understand." This explaination is further explained as a being like a judgment on Isreal and on the rebellious people among the nations.
Mathew 13:14-15:
In them is fulfilled the prophecy of Isaiah:
“‘You will be ever hearing but never understanding;
you will be ever seeing but never perceiving.
For this people’s heart has become calloused;
they hardly hear with their ears,
and they have closed their eyes.
Otherwise they might see with their eyes,
hear with their ears,
understand with their hearts
and turn, and I would heal them.’
In the explaination Jesus says that he speaks this way to fufill a prophesy in Isaiah.
“Though seeing, they do not see; though hearing, they do not hear or understand." This explaination is further explained as a being like a judgment on Isreal and on the rebellious people among the nations.
Mathew 13:14-15:
In them is fulfilled the prophecy of Isaiah:
“‘You will be ever hearing but never understanding;
you will be ever seeing but never perceiving.
For this people’s heart has become calloused;
they hardly hear with their ears,
and they have closed their eyes.
Otherwise they might see with their eyes,
hear with their ears,
understand with their hearts
and turn, and I would heal them.’