But, that is the problem, you've provided answers that don't actually address the points I am making. There is a difference between merely responding and providing something of substance which actually attempts to show where someone's points are in error.
Why not? Doesn't truth matter to you, especially the truth of who the Son is and who God is? If Jesus is correct, that "this is eternal life: that they know you, the only
true God, and Jesus Christ, whom you have sent," then it seems to me that knowing
who God actually is and who Jesus actually is, is rather central to
salvation.
The fullness of God dwells in Christ, but that doesn't preclude him from also being
true God.
Not your God; he cannot be, be definition.
Love requires an object. The greatest love, which we would expect from a God who
is love, must necessarily love someone and receive love in return. Love cannot be intrinsic to his nature if there is no object of that love.
Of course, in his
epistle, John is just being consistent with what he states in
John 1:1-2:
Joh 1:1 In the beginning was the
Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. (ESV)
Looking at the first clause, "In the beginning" is clearly a reference to
Gen 1:1. John's readers would have expected "God" next, but instead see "was the Word." It is significant that God created by speaking and here John says that the Word was in the beginning "with God" yet also, in some way, "was God." He then states in verse 3 that the Word was involved in the
creation of all that came into being. The word "was" is the Greek,
en, which is a form of
eimi (I Am), and speaks of continuous action in the past; that is, absolute preexistence before any creation. What that means is that
when the beginning began, the Word was already in existence, and hence, there was never a time when he did not exist. The very same applies to the Father, who has absolute preexistence.
In the second clause, "and the Word was with God," it is the Greek
pros that is translated as "with." But it isn't merely speaking of being together or near.
It is in the accusative and expresses "direction towards," as in relationship and communion, implying intimacy. It is important to note here that in the Greek the article is present, so it literally reads, "the Word was with [the] God."
So, God is a reference to someone other than the Word, at a minimum it is a reference to the Father.
When it comes to the last clause, "the Word was God," it is significant that "God"
doesn't have the article in the Greek, as it did in the preceding clause. If the article had been present then "Word" and "God" become interchangeable— they would be one and the same—which is the error of
Modalism/Oneness theology. But this whole passage is about the
logos, who the
logos is, not who God is, so John purposely doesn't use the article to avoid equating the two words.
Therefore, it can only have a qualitative meaning, that is, that the Word was divine in nature, or deity. However, since there is only one God, it is rightly translated as "the Word was God."
Notice how consistent that is with his statement that "God is love." He tells us in his gospel that the Word existed prior to creation, meaning that the Word cannot have been a created thing, the Word cannot have come into existence. He then says that the Word was in intimate relationship with God (hence why God actually is love). The third clause of verse 1 follows from the first two: the Word is (true) God in nature
because he has existed for all eternity past and has always been in an intimate, loving relationship with (at least) the Father.
Joh 1:2 He was in the beginning with God. (ESV)
We see a repeat of verse 1 with the use of
en,
pros, and God with the article, reaffirming the timeless preexistence of the Word who was in active, close communion with the Father.
As a side note, this is all consistent with John 1:3, 10, 1 Cor. 8:6, and Col. 1:16-17, and the logical problem(s) for anti-Trinitarians. The Son
cannot have come into being or those three passages are all wrong and it would contradict John 1:1-2, among others. These are things your position simply cannot account for.
Those things are all true, but as I stated, in order for
your God to love, he would have had to create those things in order to have objects to love. That means he couldn't actually
be love, as John states. His love only comes about
after creation. Therefore, he is deficient and cannot be God.
These sorts of statements are pointless, since anyone could say the same about you.
As I've pointed out several times, the Son
cannot be God without also being true God,
because there never was, is, nor will be another god (or God). That's
polytheism and is unequivocally rejected by the
Bible.