Where did you get that? I must confess Jesus is Lord and believe he is God's son in order to be saved. That’s what the scriptures say. (And Lord is not the same as LORD, which stands for YHWH)
I got that from my post #35:
"Clearly there is more to it than merely "believing in Jesus" or believing that he is the Son of God. One must believe
in who he is. And we cannot forget Rom 10:9-13:
9 that if you confess with your mouth the Lord Jesus and believe in your heart that God has raised Him from the dead, you will be saved. 10 For with the heart one believes unto righteousness, and with the mouth confession is made unto salvation. 11 For the Scripture says, "Whoever believes on Him will not be put to shame." 12 For there is no distinction between Jew and Greek, for the same Lord over all is rich to all who call upon Him. 13 For "whoever calls on the name of the Lord shall be saved." (NKJV)
Not only is there a confession that 'Jesus is Lord,' Paul applies Joel 2:32 to that confession, where 'Lord' is 'LORD' in the OT, that is YHWH. It must also be said that belief in Jesus's death and physical resurrection is necessary for salvation."
And 'Lord' in the NT is used in every OT quote where "LORD," or YHWY, is used. That was my whole point. And I still need to point out that there is more to simply confessing "
Jesus is Lord and believe he is God's son in order to be saved."
D4Christ said:
The Son laid the foundations of the earth as evidenced in many scriptures. There are also scriptures that states YHWH laid the foundations of the earth. Does that make them the same person? There ares criptures that say Jesus raised himself from the dead. There are scriptures that state God raised Jesus from the dead. How about God is Savior vs. Jesus is Savior. Both can be found in scriptures. Which one is true?
All scenarios are true. Didn't God create the world....thru his Son? Then they both would have been involved in the creation. Did not God give Christ the power that allowed him to rise from the dead? Does not God save us thru his Son? Wouldn't that also make God our savior? Does that make them one and the same being? No. Does not the Son give credit for all he does to the Father? For the Son says he does only what his father tells him to do. And the Son takes credit for nothing he does, but instead does all to glorify His Father. So I don't find it confusing that descriptions of God as Savior, Creator and giver of life are also applied to God's Son, since the Son operates as Savior, Creator and giver of life in the power and name of his Father.
I am mostly in agreement with you but you have taken one important point too far. Jesus was involved in creation but not just of the Earth, of everything. That precludes him from ever having been created.
And here begin the problems with proof-texting:
D4Christ said:
John 1: 1 In the beginning the Word already existed.
The Word was with God, and the Word was God.
2 He existed in the beginning with God.
I can't help but notice you skipped verse 3: Joh 1:3 All things were made through Him, and without Him nothing was made that was made. (NKJV)
This clearly precludes Jesus from having ever been created. Not to mention verses 1 and 2 show that when the beginning began,
Jesus was already in existence, thereby precluding him from having been created, in perfect agreement with verse 3.
D4Christ said:
Col 1: 15 Christ is the visible image of the invisible God. He existed before anything was created and is supreme over all creation,17 He existed before anything else,
and he holds all creation together. 18 Christ is also thehead of the church,
which is his body. He is the beginning,s upreme over all who rise from the dead.
So he is first in everything.
Here verse
16, which is more or less conspicuously absent, like John 1:3, in in perfect agreement with what is shown in John 1:1-3: "Jesus existed before anything was created." Actually, it may be your translation that is in error. As a side note, as per the TOS regarding copyrighted material, you must post your version unless it's the KJV.
Col 1:16 For by Him
all things were created that are in heaven and that are on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or principalities or powers.
All things were created through Him and for Him. (NKJV)
If Jesus was created, then this verse is stating a falsehood. The
only logical conclusion is that Jesus could not have been created.
D4Christ said:
Proverbs 8: 22 “The Lord formed me from the beginning, before he created anything else. 23I was appointedin ages past, atthe very first, before the earth began. 24 I was born beforetheoceans were created, before the springs bubbled forth their waters. 25 Before the mountains were formed, before thehills,I was born— .
Proverbs 8 is not speaking of Jesus. It is simply the personification of Wisdom.
D4Christ said:
Rev 3
14 “Write this letter to the angel of the church in Laodicea. This isthe message from the one who is the Amen—the faithful and true witness, the beginning of God’s new creation:
This simply cannot be saying that Jesus was created, the first of God's creation, as that would contradict numerous passages, including those already discussed. It is saying that Jesus is the "author [or beginner] of God's new creation." And, yes, that is a perfectly acceptable translation of that verse.
D4Christ said:
Scriptures tell us: 1) the Son existed in the beginning 2) the Son is the firstborn of creation 3) the Son is the beginning of God’s new creation. God’s creation started at Gen 1:1
The Scriptures actually tell us, as I have shown: 1) the Son was already in existence when the beginning began, 2) the Son is the firstborn, which is to say preeminent, or supreme (as your translation states), over creation, 3)
if we accept your translation of "new creation," where most just say "creation," then "God's
new creation," would not at all be a reference to Gen 1:1 but rather the resurrection of Jesus. Believers are even called "new creations" in 2Cor 5:17 and Gal 6:15. However, it is simply saying that the Son is the author or beginner of God's creation.
D4Christ said:
Yes I read Phil 2. Did you happen to read verse 11?
What about it? It does nothing to my position. But this highlights a continuing problem: You are constantly removing verses from their context. Verse 11
must be understood
within the context of Phil 2, and then within the entirety of the NT and all of Scripture itself.
Verses 5-8 are showing that Jesus was God but then humbled himself to the Father for the purpose of dying on the cross for our salvation. Verse 11 cannot, and does not, change that.
D4Christ said:
If Christ is really the Father, why are we declaring him Lord to the glory of God the Father? This verse could have simply read,‘every tongue confess that Jesus is God to the glory of God the Father, God the Son and God the HS. Phil demonstrates that even having the ‘form of God’ Christ humbled and continues to humble himself before the Father….which is why Christ consistently declares that the Father is God and God alone.
I think we've been through this before.
No one is saying that "Christ is really the Father." That is notwhat the doctrine of the Trinity states. That is the error of modalism and Oneness theology.
D4Christ said:
Why imply who God is, when Christ clearly tells us who the True God is. And again I quote…
Christ doesn’t mention himself or the HS. Why haven’t dyed in the wool Trinitarians addressed why the Son of God would tell us we need to know the true God andt hen name his Father?
Again, you are wanting to divorce these passages completely from the rest of Scripture in order to support your point. This is a significant problem. All the passages already discussed, which clearly show that the Son could not have been created, stand in direct opposition to such statements.
We must reconcile
all that is given in Scripture and not ignore those we disagree with. The passages that state that the Father is the true God must be reconciled with those that clearly state, whether implicitly or explicitly, that Jesus is just as much God as the Father is God, while remaining faithful to monotheism.
This is the difficulty with the nature of God as revealed in Scripture. We simply cannot allow certain passages to arbitrarily overrule others.
D4Christ said:
Everything that was made was created by GOD thru the Son. But the “everything” that is being spoken about is the creation of the world.
No. There is absolutely no reason whatsoever to understand John 1:1-3, 1Cor 8:6 and Col 1:16 as referring only to the creation of the world. The contexts are such that they are clearly speaking of the creation of absolutely everything that was ever created.
You have no biblical basis for such a claim. To do so is eisegesis, not exegesis.
D4Christ said:
And unless you have got a book that precedes Genesis, the creation story begins with “in the beginning God created the heavens and the earth.” All that was created at that point forward was created by God thru His Son.
I have no disagreement there. Genesis 1:1 is a simple statement of the beginning of
all creation. The rest of the chapter and chapter 2 unpack what is meant by "
in the beginning God created the heavens and the earth."
D4Christ said:
John 1:3 is only referring to creation and cannot be applied to whatever was going on prior to Gen. Since the Son existed before anything was created, this places him before creation (Genesis) and “everything that was made.” Thus John 1:3 couldn’t be made false by anything that took place prior to Gen 1. Gen 1 started our timeline, not the Father’s. These are two different time periods.
Now you are confusing me. The was no time before Genesis 1:1. The beginning of Creation is the beginning of Time. Anything that was in existence prior to Gen 1:1 had existed for eternity past, or however one needs to word that without using "eternity" which is itself a concept of time.
D4Christ said:
So riddle me this?
If the Son existed from everlasting like the Father and he has always existed, why mention his existence was before creation….wouldn’t that be obvious.
Even with mentioning it people don't think it's obvious, so how would not mentioning it help things? As a man, the God-man, of course it would be necessary to state where Jesus came from, to state just exactly who he is.
D4Christ said:
Why is only the Son called the firstborn of creation? Why call him first in everything? We know he was the first to rise from the dead….so what else was he first at? Maybe firstborn of creation means the firstborn of creation.
As I have stated already, "firstborn of creation" simply means that Jesus is preeminent over creation. It is speaking of his position, not necessarily his nature.
D4Christ said:
Why would the Father create thru his Son? If both are equal the Father was capable of doing it himself, yet the Son from the beginning defers to the Father and obeys him.
Perhaps these are some of the questions that need to be addressed without chalking it all up to mystery.
All three were involved in Creation. They are all co-equal so why would they not all be involved in the creating process?