The words "world" and "all"

[Dave...]

Do you believe that in the Bible, words like "all" and "world" and "every man" always mean every last single thing or person unless specifically limited (e.g. 1 John 3:3) OR do you recognize that sometimes in the Bible, words like "all" means "all kinds of" (1 Timothy 6:10) and "world" means Gentiles as opposed to Jews only (John 12:19-20) and "every man" means "every kind of man" (Acts 4:35/1 Corinthians 7:2) without any specific mention of a limitation?

Here are two examples that clearly show the words "all" and "world" don't necessarily carry the meaning of every last individual.

Example one...

1 John 2:2 And He Himself is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the whole world.

John 11:51 Now this he did not say on his own authority; but being high priest that year he prophesied that Jesus would die for the nation, 52 and not for that nation only, but also that He would gather together in one the children of God who were scattered abroad.
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1 John 2:2 And He Himself is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the whole world.

John 11:51 Now this he did not say on his own authority; but being high priest that year he prophesied that Jesus would die for the nation, 52 and not for that nation only, but also that He would gather together in one the children of God who were scattered abroad.

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1 John 2:2 And He Himself is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the whole world.

John 11:51 Now this he did not say on his own authority; but being high priest that year he prophesied that Jesus would die for the nation, 52 and not for that nation only, but also that He would gather together in one the children of God who were scattered abroad.

Another........

Luke 2:1 And it came to pass in those days that a decree went out from Caesar Augustus that all the world should be registered. 2 This census first took place while Quirinius was governing Syria. 3 So all went to be registered, everyone to his own city.

 

[Whatever]

I found this in the New Testament Greek Lexicon - NAS = Pas (the word "all" in English)
I think the "NAS" is New American Standard

Pas Definition
NAS Word Usage - Total: 1242
individually
each, every, any, all, the whole, everyone, all things, everything
collectively
some of all types

... "the whole world has gone after him" Did all the world go after Christ? "then went all Judea, and were baptized of him in Jordan."Was all Judea, or all Jerusalem, baptized in Jordan? "Ye are of God,little children", and the whole world lieth in the wicked one". Does the whole world there mean everybody? The words "world" and "all" are used in some seven or eight senses in Scripture, and it is very rarely the "all" means all persons, taken individually. The words are generally used to signify that Christ has redeemed some of all sorts-- some Jews, some Gentiles, some rich, some poor, and has not restricted His redemption to either Jew or Gentile

 

[electedbyHim]

This can be a huge study.

In the N.T. there are 168 verses and 203 uses of the word "world".

 

[Fastfredy0]

Aside: Dave... I can tell by your questions that your doctrinal foundation is strong. Thanks for the questions to keep things interesting.

All (every, everyone)​

Dictionary Definitions
All - used to refer to the whole quantity or extent of a particular group or thing
Every - used to refer to all the individual members of a set without exception

Warning: The meaning of the words “all” and “every” and “everyone” has been distorted by many to make verses fit the doctrine they prescribe. As these words can refer to ambiguous groupings unless the “group” is identified, it is best to ascertain the specific meaning from scripture that is explicit rather than implicit.
In Scripture the word “all” (as applied to humankind) is used in two senses—absolutely and relatively. In some passages it means all without exception; in others it signifies all without distinction.

Matthew 3:5 At that time Jerusalem was going out to him, and all Judea and all the district around the Jordan; it would be incredulous to believe everyone including babies, the blind, the disabled went to see Jesus

Acts 26:4 Paul says, The Jews all know the way I have lived ever since I was a child, from the beginning of my life in my own country, and also in Jerusalem. Does he mean that every Jew without exception knew him? How about those who lived in the past and those who would live in the future?


World
The word “World” per A.W. Pink

The fact is that “the world” is often used in a general way as in John 3:16. When the brethren of Christ said, “Shew Thyself to the world” (John 7:4), did they mean “shew Thyself to all mankind”? When the Pharisees said, “Behold, the world is gone after Him” (John 12:19), did they mean that “all the human family” were flocking after Him? When the apostle wrote, “Your faith is spoken of throughout the whole world” (Romans 1:8), did he mean that the faith of the saints at Rome was the subject of conversation by every man, woman, and child on the earth? When Revelation 13:3 informs us that “all the world wondered after the beast”, are we to understand that there will be no exceptions? What of the godly Jewish Remnant, who will be slain (Revelation 20:4) rather than submit? These, and other passages (John 14:17; John 15:19; John 16:20; John 17:14; etc.) which might be quoted, show that the term “the world” often has a relative rather than an absolute force

 

[st_worm2]

Hello Dave (Dave...), et al, I'll start with these, two verses that get a LOT of push-back from the folks in the same systematic theological camp.

John 12​

32 “And I, if I am lifted up from the earth, will draw ~all men~ to Myself.” ​

​

2 Peter 3​

9 The Lord is not slow about His promise, as some count slowness, but is patient toward ~you~, not wishing for ~any~ to perish but for ~all~ to come to repentance.​

There is much that can be said about both of these amazing verses, but I have no idea how the majority view about them (that they are speaking of "all w/o exception") can possibly be true

For instance, there are still people dying today who have never heard the name "Jesus Christ", as well many others who die having heard His name, but not who He is or anything else about Him, so how can it possibly be believed by so many that v32 is speaking of drawing "all men" without exception, rather than "all men" without distinction

As far as 2 Peter 3:9 goes, it's found in an Epistle that is clearly written to the saints, alone. This is also true of Chapter 3, as well as the passage in Chapter 3 that v9 is found in (both before and after it), which means that the "you", the "any" and the "all" of v9 are actually referring to two specific groups alone, 1. saints and 2. saints to be.

There is also the context of the verse itself to consider. For instance, if verse 9's "you", "any" and "all" is in reference to a group that includes all who have ever lived, that would mean that the Lord (in the case of the reprobate) is patiently waiting for a large group of people to come to saving faith who He ~already knows~ never will!

There's more to consider, of course (about these 2 verses and many others too), but this is enough for now

God bless you!!

--David