First of all, Rom. 3:9-19 shows ALL have sinned, even the Jews, who thought they were above sin because they kept the LAW.
"What then? Are we Jews any better off? No, not at all; for I have already charged that all men, both Jews and Greeks, are under the power of sin".
Well, to me it shows something much more. Because all the citations refer to wickedness and sinfulness of men. That is, the indictment from the Law isn't, "You haven't kept the law". The indictment Paul is quoting and citing is, "You are condemned as sinful."
That's how the conclusion ramps up at 3:19 to the point of, "every mouth is silenced." The law condemns everyone.
Secondly, even if I granted the point that these verses say "the law condemns everyone", where does he return to this point here? Granted, it's taught elsewhere, but not here as part of a "broader" point. Do you mean in Rom. 4:15? "For the law brings wrath, but where there is no law there is no transgression."
Paul's arguments against the Judaizers emphasize that Abraham was not under law. So it would be quite an issue to think Paul is reintroducing law under Abraham, only to take it away.
And that's what Paul recalls here, "
the law brings wrath, but no law -- no offense; that is why it [justification] depends on faith" Rom 4:15-16. Paul builds an argument from law to faith. But in how many verses? Four.
The reference to "law" doesn't appear in between 3:31 and 4:13, because Abraham isn't following a law, and circumcision isn't a reference to law.
We tend to "gentilize" this and other passages, implying that anyone circumcised in Abraham is somehow suspicious due to the Judaizing issue Gentiles must watch out for. But among Jewish converts, Christians, circumcision is pervasive. Paul can't have missed that. And Paul's not opposed to circumcised believers. What Paul is saying in Romans 4:1-12 is that circumcision is not a factor in embracing the faith of Abraham, either. Abe for years was uncircumcised and faithful. But that holds no case regarding
the Law, which was 430 years later.
This is a reference to Abraham's faith that God would give him a son, even though Sarah was barren. This has nothing to do with "aging Abe's" works. Again, you are ignoring context.
No, I'm not. Why would Abraham even consider his own body? There's one, solitary reason: considering works. And for Paul to bring this up -- why would Paul argue that Abraham considered his own body? There's one, solitary reason: considering works.
He did not weaken in faith when he considered his own body, which was as good as dead (since he was about a hundred years old), or when he considered the barrenness of Sarah's womb.
There's no reason to consider his body. There's no reason to bring it up in Paul's argument. It's a waste of parchment; unless it's about considering works vs. faith.