Silver Bullet said:
It is a basic fact of human discourse that one either has good reasons for what one believes, or one does not. While you have pointed out the difference in the type of evidence that may be available, science and history are both evidence based, and about having good reasons.
However you put it Veritas, you are suggesting that the claims of the Gospels ought to be held in less esteem than the claims of modern science. I agree. Nothing about our 21st century understanding of human reproduction indicates the remotest possibility of parthenogenesis. Virtually nothing about the Gospels suggests that we should discard that scientific understanding and believe in Jesus' virgin birth. It's simple: extraordinary claims require extraordinary evidence. Historical evidence recorded by biased observers 2000 or more years ago and edited by biased editors over time just can't cut it.
It's not possible to have both. If you had extraordinary evidence, like I assume you are looking for (ie. repeatable, peer reviewed evidence), it will no longer be an extraordinary claim. It would be ordinary. So, yes, there has to be room made in the mind for accepting the possiblity of the miraculous.
That said, I think there is extraodinary evidence for the veracity of the Bible in terms of a historical investigation. I disagree with the claim that accounts have been edited over time. And I believe this to be a popular misconception of our day. If, by editing, you mean adding a space or using a different spelling, I would agree with you. But if, by editing, you mean entire ideas have been changed, I flaty disagree.
When the gospels (for example) are compared to other historical accounts or literature, of which we consider to be accurate or largely unchanged, we find that the evidence for the gospels far outweighs other documents. Herodutus, whom we consider to be the father of history, wrote The Histories of Herodutus in the 400s BC; the earliest copies we have for those documents are from 900 AD; That is a 1300 year time gap between the orginal and what we have. There are 8 copies. Livy wrote the History of Rome at the time of Christ; we have 1 partial copy from that and it dates to 300 AD. Josephus wrote The Jewish War in the first century AD, we have 9 copies of that dating from 900 AD, leaving an 800 year time gap from when it was written. Pliny the Elder wrote the Natural History in first century AD; we have 7 copies of that from 850 AD. Tacitus wrote the Annals of Imperial of Rome in the first century AD; we have 20 copies of that from 1100 AD.
Now compare this to the New Testament. It was written from 50 - 100 AD. The earliest fragments we have are from 114 AD. At most there is 50 year time gap between original and copy. We have 5664 copies. That is extraordinary evidence.
There are also volumes of archeological evidence which supports the Bible. We forget that kingdoms, of whose existence we now take for granted, such as the Assyrians and the Babylonians, or even their towns, were once thought to be imaginary by critics of the past. Archeology has validated all of this.
Silver Bullet said:
Veritas wrote:
I watched the video and caught an error in thinking right away on the part of Dr. Shelly Kagan. He appeals to "common sense"; however, that is the very thing in question. He proposes that if something "hurts/harms" then it must be morally bad. The problem is that you must not only define "what hurts", but you must also determine why things that "hurt/harm" are even wrong in the first place. He is ignoring fundamental principles.
Please expand on this Veritas, especially the part about the need to establish why "things that hurt/harm are wrong in the first place." I seems fairly clear to me that humans can almost universally agree that "things that hurt/harm are wrong". Why isn't that enough?
Can we universally agree? A dispassionate look at nature won't help us. Many species, even mammalian and other primates, practice behaviour that would be considered very hurtful within their own species. By our standards what they do would be considered murder, rape, and cannibalism. A question can be asked, and has been asked, whether it is good for them to do this by some overarching natural benefit. It's a reasonable question, but does not help us for deriving a morality naturalisticaly. So assuming agreement exists regarding the derivation of morality devoid of God is inconsistent. That definition is not enough. It's practical for now because we mostly agree as a result of the historical religious undertones still existent in our culture today. And I believe it also exists as a part of God's presence here with all of us, albeit partial with some.
Silver Bullet said:
Veritas wrote:
The claims are elitist and exclusivistic; however, just because something is elitist doesn't mean it's motivated by arrogance. No one is forcing you to believe these claims; and if they are, that is very wrong.
Again, you are mixing up ideas from other posts. I was arguing that "shad" in his thread entitled "Elitism" was a hypocrite because his Christian doctrine is itself elitist (which you and I seem to agree on), just as the denominations he was identifying as elitist are. That was one thought, and the main thrust of those posts.
Arrogance: an attitude of superiority manifested in an overbearing manner or presumptuous claims or assumptions.
The issue of arrogance came up in the thread entitled "Elitism" because I felt that I had to point out to shad that Christian doctrine is indeed elitist, as when it teaches that only those who follow Christian doctrine will attain a pleasant eternal life, and that all others get eternal suffering. It just happens that that very concept is overbearing and incredibly presumptuous, so it is also arrogant.
It would be presumptuous and arrogant of me to determine that you are destined for hell. But I don't know that and I don't presume that. I believe that God knows, and I don't think this is presumptuous of God because of the fact he does "know".
Silver Bullet said:
I never suggested that elitism and arrogance in general are necessarily related, so you had no need to make the comments that you made. Arrogance came up in this thread as it related to the idea that Jesus is the only way to true morality. It doesn't matter that nobody is forcing me to believe Christian dogma. It is arrogant. Just look back at the post(s) I was responding to, which are typical.
I see. So, do you think it is arrogant of me to simply believe Jesus is the only way? Or, arrogant of me to follow His morality ie "Love God. Love others as yourself"? Or both?
I could understand you thinking that Jesus is arrogant - he would be if he isn't God. However, if he is God, he's just the opposite.
Silver Bullet said:
Veritas wrote:
Demeaning a particular "morality" is sometimes for the higher good. For example, I think we can both agree it is good to demean the morality that considers all other races than themselves (whatever that may be) undeserving of life.
Demean: to lower in character, status, or reputation
Once again, your comments are irrelevant. I was pointing out that the arrogant claim that morality can only come from a particular God demeans other people who derive their morality from other means. I was not commenting on moral content per se, but on the means of deriving morality. The suggestion that Jesus is the only way to true morality necessarily "lowers the status or reputation" of those who derive their morality from other means, without considering what those means or the ultimate moral content may be.
I think we Christians consider both the means and the ultimate moral content. I don't think some of the other means of deriving a morality is very robust intellectually speaking for reasons I've been trying to explain. And I do disagree with the some ultimate moral content derived. I'm sure you disagree with me. I don't think you are demeaning me, just disagreeing with me.
Silver Bullet said:
I will point out 2 things though:
1) demeaning a particular morality may only be a good thing when the particular morality in question is one that diminishes the well-being or increases the suffering of others, as your example does. The consideration of how the particular morality in question impacts others is what is primary.
2) the reason we (and Shelly Kagan as well I am sure) can agree that demeaning the particular morality you described is good Veritas, is because we are fully aware of the harm that such a morality would cause others, without a need to "define harm" or determine why "harm is wrong".
Ok, but as I said, it's not comprehensive.