Yet, does not the venerable KJV (and some others) just simply call it "Hell"? And that same word' Hell" keeps getting used with little regard to what, specifically, is being referenced in that passage, does it not?
Of course it does. So, here we are, running around calling all of it, "Hell" when we literally read one of those translations...... not really being too accurate at all.
And, no, we can't use the "original language" ploy, and go look up a number in a book. Because the original languages (all four of them) have to be pretty deeply understood in a much more scholarly sense than 99% of us do, since context and idioms come into play all through those languages.
Frankly, most of us have little alternative beyond depending upon gleaning what we can from various commentaries and other sources, to get a sense of the true original content. The very first thing I do is read a passage in at least a half dozen different translations.... often, as many as twenty, or so..... THEN I start researching all sorts of other sources. Some make sense to me, some don't..... but often, only a direct, literal reading of one version of the Bible can leave some wondering.
But, each of us gets to believe what we want, as we see it, so not much of this discussion matters much anyway. I'll do and believe what I feel is right, and so will each of us. We may all end up having it all wrong.