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Bible Study "Thou Shalt Not Murder" analysis

the devil is the murderer, not God

John 8:3-44 "the scribes and Pharisees brought unto him a woman taken in adultery; and when they had set her in the midst, They say unto him, Master, this woman was taken in adultery, in the very act. Now Moses in the law commanded us, that such should be stoned: but what sayest thou? This they said, tempting him, that they might have to accuse him. But Jesus stooped down, and with his finger wrote on the ground, as though he heard them not(viz. in order to remind them about the Ten Commandments which the true God wrote by His Own Finger). So when they continued asking him, he lifted up himself, and said unto them, He that is without sin among you, let him first cast a stone at her(viz. can any believer be sinless if violates any of the Ten Commandments of God Himself? - in this case the Commandment is: "thou shalt not kill."). And again he stooped down, and wrote on the ground(viz. and He again continued to remind them about the Ten Commandments which the true Lord God alone wrote on the tables of stone). And they which heard it(i.e. and after they understood what He allude(d)), being convicted by their own conscience, went out one by one, beginning at the eldest, even unto the last: and Jesus was left alone, and the woman standing in the midst. When Jesus had lifted up himself, and saw none but the woman, he said unto her, Woman, where are those thine accusers? hath no man condemned thee? She said, No man, Lord. And Jesus said unto her, Neither do I condemn thee: go, and sin no more(viz. and it would be good that you also keep the Ten Commandments). Then spake Jesus again unto them, saying, I am the light of the world: he that followeth me shall not walk in darkness, but shall have the light of life..... Ye judge after the flesh; I judge no man. And yet if I judge(viz. but even if I intervene in the life of some human(s)), my judgment is true(i.e. My intervention is good/favorable and not a bit evil/unfavorable): for I am not alone, but I and the Father that sent me. It is also written in your law, that the testimony of two men is true. I am one that bear witness of myself, and the Father that sent me beareth witness of me..... he that sent me is true; and I speak to the world those things which I have heard of him..... And he that sent me is with me: the Father hath not left me alone; for I do always those things that please him. Then said Jesus to those Jews which believed on him, If ye continue in my word, then are ye my disciples indeed; And ye shall know the truth, and the truth shall make you free..... I speak that which I have seen with my Father(viz. that is in the Heaven):..... the devil... was a murderer(i.e. exactly the devil is the primary cause(r) of the evil) from the beginning, and abode not in the truth(i.e. in the righteousness), because there is no truth(i.e. because there is no goodness) in him. When he speaketh a lie(i.e. an unrighteousness), he speaketh of his own: for he is a liar(i.e. evil), and the father of it."

the devil has had an inner/domestic power in the time before the New Testament whereby it was able to appear as a part of God and (to) give inimical ordinances such as: "an eye for an eye, and a tooth for a tooth", but the true God Father and Lord Jesus Christ have destroyed the inner/domestic power of the devil and have officially annulled all inimical ordinances of the testament which the devil had succeeded to inculcate

John 12:31-32 "Now is the judgment of this world: now shall the prince of this world be cast out(viz. now the whole inner/domestic power of the devil will permanently be destroyed). And I, if(i.e. and when) I be lifted up from the earth, will draw all men unto me.",

John 14:30 "Hereafter I will not talk much with you: for the prince of this world(i.e. the wicked) cometh, and hath nothing in me.",

Matthew 27:50-56 "Jesus, when he had cried again with a loud voice, yielded up the ghost. And, behold, the veil of the temple was rent in twain from the top to the bottom(viz. all inimical ordinances in the God's covenant/testament has been annulled); and the earth did quake(viz. and the powers did shake), and the rocks rent(viz. and the whole inner/domestic power of the devil has permanently been removed/destroyed); And the graves were opened; and many bodies of the saints which slept arose, And came out of the graves after his resurrection, and went into the holy city, and appeared unto many. Now when the centurion, and they that were with him, watching Jesus, saw the earthquake, and those things that were done, they feared greatly, saying, Truly this was the Son of God. And many women were there beholding afar off, which followed Jesus from Galilee, ministering unto him: Among which was Mary Magdalene, and Mary the mother of James and Joses, and the mother of Zebedee's children.",

Colossians 2:14-15 "Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances(i.e. annulling the human/satanic part of the ordinances in the God's covenant/testament) that was against us(i.e. which was prejudicial to the people), which was contrary to us(i.e. which was adverse to us), and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross; And having spoiled principalities and powers(i.e. and having denounced the unrighteous spiritual/religious systems and powers), he made a shew of them openly, triumphing over them in it."

Blessings
 
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You may have come across the problem of: "If God commanded us not to kill, why did He command the Israelites to kill their enemies?"
I've thought of that too. Below is a link to the answer. God Bless!

www.carm.org/questions/you-shall-not-kill-yet-god-kills


I have heard this before, but I find the simple explanation troubling. For if the KJV is so fundamentally mistranslated as to get one of the 10 commandments wrong then how can it be trusted as a source? What else is wrong? Further if murder is the unlawful killing, and as humans make law, humans define sin. That doesn't sound right either.

So I think that people who wanted to hear some killing is justified looked for a way to rewrite it to please themselves. Thou shalt not kill sounds best to me. Meaning it is a sin to kill in any and all circumstances. We find justifications for ourselves in human law such as self defense, but they are human justifications. How can our law determine what is sin?

The whole thing is a man made dilemma in my opinion.
 
I have heard this before, but I find the simple explanation troubling. For if the KJV is so fundamentally mistranslated as to get one of the 10 commandments wrong then how can it be trusted as a source? What else is wrong? Further if murder is the unlawful killing, and as humans make law, humans define sin. That doesn't sound right either.

So I think that people who wanted to hear some killing is justified looked for a way to rewrite it to please themselves. Thou shalt not kill sounds best to me. Meaning it is a sin to kill in any and all circumstances. We find justifications for ourselves in human law such as self defense, but they are human justifications. How can our law determine what is sin?

The whole thing is a man made dilemma in my opinion.
Yes, I agree that this is somewhat a man-made dilemma. Thank you for pointing that out. This would take some consideration.
 
Come to think of it, I think that "lawful killing" in this area means "God-instructed killing." So in this topic on whether God contradicted Himself in the Old Testament, I think that since it was a God-instructed war, it is not considered murder. What do you think?
 
Come to think of it, I think that "lawful killing" in this area means "God-instructed killing." So in this topic on whether God contradicted Himself in the Old Testament, I think that since it was a God-instructed war, it is not considered murder. What do you think?

Perhaps. I think people read the old testament to literally, and not for what it is. A collection of stories meant to convey moral wisdom, and inspire a people. It may contain some actual history, but it isn't a history book. IMHO.
 
I have heard this before, but I find the simple explanation troubling. For if the KJV is so fundamentally mistranslated as to get one of the 10 commandments wrong then how can it be trusted as a source? What else is wrong? Further if murder is the unlawful killing, and as humans make law, humans define sin. That doesn't sound right either.

So I think that people who wanted to hear some killing is justified looked for a way to rewrite it to please themselves. Thou shalt not kill sounds best to me. Meaning it is a sin to kill in any and all circumstances. We find justifications for ourselves in human law such as self defense, but they are human justifications. How can our law determine what is sin?

The whole thing is a man made dilemma in my opinion.

These are some of Moses' Law what is/is not considered murder, and capital punishment. I'm not sure which Rabbi's interpretation of the Hebrew is listed here for explanation. These are from the 613 laws of Torah.

289. Not to kill an innocent person, as [Exodus 20:13] states: "Do not murder."
290. Not to render a decision on the basis of a presumption, unless two witnesses observe the actual matter, as [Exodus 23:7] states: "Do not slay the innocent and the righteous."a
291. For a witness not to render a decision in a capital case in which he testified, as [Numbers 35:30] states: "One witness shall not testify in a capital case..."
292. Not to execute a person liable for execution before he stands trial, as [Numbers 35:12] states: "The murderer shall not die [until he stands before the congregation]."
293. Not to have pity on a pursuer. Rather, he should be killed before he kills or rapes the person he is pursuing, as [Deuteronomy 25:12] states: "And you shall cut off her hand. Show no pity."

http://www.chabad.org/library/article_cdo/aid/901729/jewish/Part-3.htm

Hope this is helpful.
 
These are some of Moses' Law what is/is not considered murder, and capital punishment. I'm not sure which Rabbi's interpretation of the Hebrew is listed here for explanation. These are from the 613 laws of Torah.

289. Not to kill an innocent person, as [Exodus 20:13] states: "Do not murder."
290. Not to render a decision on the basis of a presumption, unless two witnesses observe the actual matter, as [Exodus 23:7] states: "Do not slay the innocent and the righteous."a
291. For a witness not to render a decision in a capital case in which he testified, as [Numbers 35:30] states: "One witness shall not testify in a capital case..."
292. Not to execute a person liable for execution before he stands trial, as [Numbers 35:12] states: "The murderer shall not die [until he stands before the congregation]."
293. Not to have pity on a pursuer. Rather, he should be killed before he kills or rapes the person he is pursuing, as [Deuteronomy 25:12] states: "And you shall cut off her hand. Show no pity."

http://www.chabad.org/library/article_cdo/aid/901729/jewish/Part-3.htm

Hope this is helpful.

It was. So would you say that the KJV is flawed?
 
Your brought up a very difficult and perplexing question. Sometime those answers don't come easy. Sometimes we just have to trust God that He knows what he is doing.
Yes, I agree with you. Living in a skeptical society, though, I find it important to have answers. We will just have to trust that God will give us wisdom and the understanding at the time He wants to.
 
Yes, I agree with you. Living in a skeptical society, though, I find it important to have answers. We will just have to trust that God will give us wisdom and the understanding at the time He wants to.
You don't always have to know all the answers. The Lord will provide them when necessary. Remember Christianity is a religion of the heart, not of the mind. If you have a heart for the people, they will overlook the fact that you can't answer every question.
 
Every written source is flawed in that they always depend on a fallible reader to interpret them correctly.


That isn't quite a flaw in the written text.

What I am getting at is the KJV flawed in that it isn't the preserved word of God? I would say if it got one of the ten commandments wrong in meaning that is a fundamental flaw. How do we account for this if true? Should it be discarded?
 
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