Shimshon
Member
And to think this was given to us PRO bono!A wise saying: "If you pull TEXT out of CONTEXT, you are left with just a CON."
Join For His Glory for a discussion on how
https://christianforums.net/threads/a-vessel-of-honor.110278/
https://christianforums.net/threads/psalm-70-1-save-me-o-god-lord-help-me-now.108509/
Read through the following study by Tenchi for more on this topic
https://christianforums.net/threads/without-the-holy-spirit-we-can-do-nothing.109419/
Join Sola Scriptura for a discussion on the subject
https://christianforums.net/threads/anointed-preaching-teaching.109331/#post-1912042
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And to think this was given to us PRO bono!A wise saying: "If you pull TEXT out of CONTEXT, you are left with just a CON."
Ohhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhh !!!!!!!I cant drink much of that anymore. besides moses was a mountain jew when he descended horeb.lol
What denomination were these women who visited your house?
ah the pioneers and the other guys. was this on a Saturday? that is when they tend to do this.While disagreeing with the tenets of their faith I admire their commitment to their denomination and to evangelizing the vision they understand of Christ.
I've seen the testimony of ex-Witnesses and Mormons and they suggest that you not confront these people but to instead form personal relationships with them as fellow Christians. They are trained with selective verses and have selective answers for people who rebuke their understanding of Scripture.
Conversation can soon become a brouhaha with resulting animosity on both sides and a lifelong possibility of crushed faith in Christ.
The majority in our area are young college age boys. They know and can find online long explanations of how different their beliefs are from mainline Christianity
Witnesses and Mormons are required to evangelize if they are to advance in the church and develop into a higher spirit.
Two women visited my house and they were discussing scriptures and they were showing two verses to prove that Jesus was born. the first one was in
Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature: (Colossians 1:15)
The second scripture was from Proverbs 8:22 onwards
22 The Lord possessed me in the beginning of his way, before his works of old.
23 I was set up from everlasting, from the beginning, or ever the earth was.
24 When there were no depths, I was brought forth; when there were no fountains abounding with water.
25 Before the mountains were settled, before the hills was I brought forth:
26 While as yet he had not made the earth, nor the fields, nor the highest part of the dust of the world.
27 When he prepared the heavens, I was there: when he set a compass upon the face of the depth:
I anyhow convinced them about the first verse that Christ wasn't created according to Colossians 1:15 but it was figuratively said about Christ being the first born among man to be seated in the heavenly places.
And I also told them that there would be another connecting scripture to prove the first scripture and they immediately showed me Proverbs 8:22 and I replied them that I didn't meditate on Proverbs, I will surely get back to you.
My question is what does Proverbs 8:22-27 mean?
It means just what it says. The idea that the Son existed as a separate entity from all eternity is not what was taught in the Christian faith until the around 400's or 500's AD.
The early Christians believed just as proverbs says. The Scripture too agree with this understanding. In John 8 Jesus said,
42 Jesus said unto them, If God were your Father, ye would love me: for I proceeded forth and came from God; neither came I of myself, but he sent me. (Joh 8:42 KJV)
Jesus used the Greek word "ek" which means to come out of. Jesus literally said that He came out of God. This lines up with Psalm 2 where David prophesied the words of Christ.
7 I will declare the decree: the LORD hath said unto me, Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee.
8 Ask of me, and I shall give thee the heathen for thine inheritance, and the uttermost parts of the earth for thy possession. (Psa 2:7-8 KJV)
In this passage we see the Son being begotten of the Father. In John 8 Jesus said, I came out of God, it's the same thing. This is the early Christian understanding of it also. Consider the Nicene Creed, here are the first two lines.
I believe in one God, the Father Almighty, Maker of heaven and earth, and of all things visible and invisible.
And in one Lord Jesus Christ, the only-begotten Son of God, begotten of the Father before all worlds; God of God, Light of Light, very God of very God; begotten, not made, being of one substance with the Father, by whom all things were made.
They understood that the Son was begotten before the creation. Here is a quote from Ignatius, who was a disciple of the apostle John.
The cross of Christ is indeed a stumbling-block to those that do not believe, but to the believing it is salvation and life eternal. “Where is the wise man? where the disputer?” Where is the boasting of those who are called mighty? For the Son of God, who was begotten before time began, and established all things according to the will of the Father, He was conceived in the womb of Mary, according to the appointment of God, of the seed of David, and by the Holy Ghost. For says [the Scripture], “Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and He shall be called Immanuel.” He was born and was baptized by John, that He might ratify the institution committed to that prophet.
Early Church Fathers - – Ante-Nicene Fathers: The Writings of the Fathers Down To A.D. 325.
Can't we take it this way. It was Jesus the human who was begotten by the Father and not Christ the God?
I think that's how it is understood by many who hold the modern view of the Trinity. My point is that that is not the original Christian faith. The teaching of the faith, and I believe the Scriptures, is that the Son was begotten by the Father before creation. Michah 5:2 says,
YLT Micah 5:2 And thou, Beth-Lehem Ephratah, Little to be among the chiefs of Judah! From thee to Me he cometh forth -- to be ruler in Israel, And his comings forth are of old, From the days of antiquity. (Mic 5:2 YLT)
The words, coming forth, are the Greek word "arkhay" it means origin or beginning. The passage suggests that the one who would be ruler over Israel had an origin from of old. The idea that Christ has existed as the second person of the Trinity for all eternity is not really the Christian faith as it was not what was taught in the beginning by the apostles, or actually, by the Scriptures. I know this surprises people but it is what was originally taught as can be seen by simply looking at the earliest teachings of the faith.
I would also submit that Jesus is the Christ, the Christ is not a separate entity. The man Jesus is the Christ, the anointed king of God
Only small problem with this is Micah was written in Hebrew not Greek while some of the OT was written in Aramaic most was written in Hebrew, so it is real hard to check the Greek on something that was originally written in Hebrew. But thanks Butch5, I had gotten an Young Literal Translation of the Bible, and now i am very happy that I haven't used it that much.
The Bible makes it clear inJohn 1:1-18, that Jesus was with God, and was God; and that He as the Word has always been from all eternity, but when the Word became Flesh, the Word became the God/Man Jesus Christ who was now the Only Begotten Son of God.
The Word has always been, but we see that when the fullness of time was come that the Father sent the Word, as His Son (for the Word becoming Flesh had a beginning, but He has always been God) so that while Jesus is the Only Begotten Son of God in the Flesh, the rest of men and women in this world could receive the Adoption in the Family of God and become heirs,Galatians 4:4-7;Romans 8:14-17.
But as for Micah 5:2we must remember that in the Old Testament the Word appeared as the Angel of the LORD; Genesis 22:15-18; and the Captain of the Host of the LORD,Joshua 5:16.just to mention a couple of several appearance by the Word, in ancient time. In Exodus 3:14-16 God calls Himself I AM; follow by the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob; the three patriarchs are use to help show the blessed Godhead/Trinity, Colossians 2:9. When God says I Am it means He is Self Sufficient. The Jews know this better than anyone for they wanted to stone Christ,John 8:59, because of a statement He made before this:Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Bef€ore Abraham was, I AM.John 8:58Jesus Christ is saying He is Self Sufficient.
Actually, there is no problem. Even though Micah wasn’t written in Greek, it also wasn’t written in the Masoretic text that exists today. In most English Bibles the OT is translated from the Masoretic text, however, outside of the Dead Sea Scrolls the oldest copies of the Masoretic texts we have only date back to about 1000 AD. We have copies of the Septuagint, the Greek OT that date back much farther, to around 400 AD. That’s 600 years earlier.
If you look in the NT, especially Hebrews, you’ll find that Jesus and the apostles quote the OT and if you look at the English translation of the Masoretic text you’ll find there are quite a few quotes that don’t match what they said. However, usually, if you look at those same passages in the Septuagint you’ll find just what Jesus or the apostles quoted. This shows us that Jesus and the apostles quoted and used the Septuagint and not the Hebrew or Masoretic texts. The fact that Jesus and the apostles quote from it give it authority. So, I don’t think a claim that Micah was written in Hebrew has any real basis.
Also, you should use Young’s Literal Translation, it’s actually a good reference work.
When you say, “He as the word has always been from all eternity” can you show me that from Scripture so that I can see what exactly you mean by it?
I’ve already mentioned this but I’ll mention it again. Jesus said that He came out of God (the Father), how is it that you understand that in light of what you’ve stated here?
Also, in Psalm 2 David prophesies the words of Christ.
7 I will declare the decree: the LORD hath said unto me, Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee. (Psa 2:7 KJV)
In this passage it says that God has begotten the Son, not Mary. It fits what Jesus said when He said He came out of God.
Here again, you say He’s always been, I think we need clarification here as to how He’s always been.
I don’t know if you’ve looked into the translation issues with owlam and aionios being wrongly translated as eternal or everlasting, but if you look at the usage of these words in the Scriptures it becomes clear that they don’t mean eternal, despite what the dictionaries say.
I’m not sure you can make the case that “I am” means the all sufficient one. I’m not sure how you see these other passages relevant to Micah 5:2. There’s nothing here that would create difficulty with the view I have put forth.
In the Gospel of John, Jesus often referred to Himself as the I AM, and yes it does mean the All Sufficient One,
but as for the Hebrew Word owlam it is most correctly translated from days of eternity, or from everlasting, according to Matthew Henry and The Wilson's Old Testament Word Studies, pg. 150.
Speaking of Jesus being from eternally, we see the following verses:
Thy Throne, O God, is for ever and ever: the scepter of thy kingdom is a scepter of justice.
Psalms 45:6
1) The LORD reigneth, He is clothed with majesty; the LORD is clothed with strength, with which He hath girded Himself: the world also is established that it cannot be moved.
2) Thy Throne is established from old: thou art from everlasting.
Psalms 93:1-2
Art not thou from everlasting, O LORD my God, my Holy One? We shall not die. O LORD, thou hast ordained them for judgment: and O mighty God, thou hast established them for correction.
Habakkuk 1:12
As for Psalm 2:7 speaking of the Son/Word be Begotten by the Father, John 1:1-18 speaks will to this but I will add the following:
6) And again, when He bringeth the First-Begotten into the world, He saith, And let all the angels of God worship Him.
Hebrews 1:6
When the Only/First Begotten is mention here it is speaking of the Word becoming flesh, for if it speaks of a prior day, before creation, how could the Angels whom the Word created have been their to worship Him.
The Word has always been if not so IMO God would have been lying and God cannot lie. Hebrews 6:18 For if the Father Begot the Son before Creation, then God created God:
10) Ye are my witnesses, saith the LORD, and My servant whom I have chosen: that ye may know and believe Me, and understand that I Am He: before Me, there was no god formed, neither shall there be after Me.
11) I, even I Am the LORD, and beside Me there is no Savior.
Isaiah 43:10-11
see also Isaiah 44:6; Hosea 13:4
So the Scripture is very clear that the Word became the Only Begotten Son of God, when He came to become the Judge between man and God and that He is eternal with no beginning nor no end. For was this not Job's cry: Neither is there any Judge between us, that might lay His hand upon us both. Job 9:33
You've stated that twice but you haven't shown me where Scripture teaches it.
As I said, one needs to look at the Scriptures. Jesus and Paul said the Law ended. The English translators say that many ordinances of the Law are forever. Who do you think is right?
The passages from Psalms use the word owlam which can't mean forever or everlasting. Habakuk uses the word qedem whih means, of old.
The passage from Hebrews is speaking of the incarnation. However, Jesus wasn't the first begotten man, however, He was the first begotten. I think it's obvious that the first begotten refers to His being begotten of the Father just as Psalm 2 says. That's also the original teaching of faith.
No, not created, begat. God begat God or another way to say it is Deity begat Deity.
What did Jesus say?
28 Then Jesus said to them, "When you lift up the Son of Man, then you will know that I am He, and that I do nothing of Myself; but as My Father taught Me, I speak these things. (Joh 8:28 NKJ)
How do you address the words of Jesus and Paul?
Maybe we'll know when we are in heaven ---- the measure of milk and water. :tongue
That passage is referencing wisdom. I don't see anything about the birth of Jesus.
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Two women visited my house and they were discussing scriptures and they were showing two verses to prove that Jesus was born. the first one was in
Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature: (Colossians 1:15)
The second scripture was from Proverbs 8:22 onwards
22 The Lord possessed me in the beginning of his way, before his works of old.
23 I was set up from everlasting, from the beginning, or ever the earth was.
24 When there were no depths, I was brought forth; when there were no fountains abounding with water.
25 Before the mountains were settled, before the hills was I brought forth:
26 While as yet he had not made the earth, nor the fields, nor the highest part of the dust of the world.
27 When he prepared the heavens, I was there: when he set a compass upon the face of the depth:
I anyhow convinced them about the first verse that Christ wasn't created according to Colossians 1:15 but it was figuratively said about Christ being the first born among man to be seated in the heavenly places.
And I also told them that there would be another connecting scripture to prove the first scripture and they immediately showed me Proverbs 8:22 and I replied them that I didn't meditate on Proverbs, I will surely get back to you.
My question is what does Proverbs 8:22-27 mean?