antitox said:
DivineNames said:
I challenge you with the plain words of the Bible.
Sounds good to me:
(1 Cor 2:12) "Now we have received not the spirit of the world, but the Spirit which is from God. And we impart this in words not taught by hunan wisdom but taught by the Spirit, interpreting spiritual truths to those who possess the Spirit."
(2 Pet 1:20) "First of all you must understand this, that no prophecy of scripture is a matter of one's own interpretation. because no prophecy ever came by the impulse of man, but men moved by the Holy Spirit spoke from God."
Now those scriptures show that you won't be able to properly assimilate any of this without having the Spirit of God in your life. You are operating under the impulse of man, not God.
Firstly, the verses really don't look that relevant. Jesus gives a clear prophecy. I don't need the "Holy Spirit" to be able to understand it. Neither does anyone else. And as it happens, there are a number of Christians who agree with my interpretation of those verses.
Secondly, you are rather assuming that these are inspired people, with inspired prophecies,
which is the issue at stake. Please try to avoid circular argument.
The New Testament claims to follow on from the Old Testament. Remember that the gospel writers appealed to Old Testament "prophecy" to support their claim of the significance of Jesus. It is the O.T. that has priority-
You may say to yourselves, "How can we know when a message has not been spoken by the LORD ?" If what a prophet proclaims in the name of the LORD does not take place or come true, that is a message the LORD has not spoken. That prophet has spoken presumptuously. Do not be afraid of him. (Deuteronomy 18:21-22 NIV)
Where someone claims to speak for God, as in the case of Jesus, the Old Testament provides a simple criteria by which we can judge the truth of that claim. If their prophecies do not come true, then
they aren't speaking for God. A couple of points can be made-
(1) Jesus did know, or should have known, that those who claim to speak for God are tested on this criteria. It is
his responsibility to make his prophecies clear and easily understandable, (to everyone), so that he can be tested on this point. (In the example we are considering, Jesus did give a clear prophecy as I have already said, but some of you apparently want to contest this.)
(2) When someone claims to speak for God, we aren't told in the Old Testament to have
faith that they are genuine. We are told that false prophets exist, and we are given a simple criteria by which we can test them.
Please tell me, where does it say in the O.T. that you should have faith that someone hasn't given a false prophecy?