Originally posted by Matthew24:34
They were not to be deceived by those teaching that Christ had already come (enesteken--"is come" "is present"). Whenever this term (enesteken) it refers to the present and not to the future. Correct translation--"that the Day of the Lord IS come."
Oh please! Matthew, we could strive over words forever if we tried to dissect every prophecy they cite and argue the limits of their possibilities. I have already precisely demonstrated in another thread that the very same words you claim
must mean
"near" and
"shortly" are actually referring to long periods of time; and you did not provide a coherent Biblical explanation as to
"why". You're missing the big picture by not realizing that ANY interpretation which directly contradicts express Bible statements is not within the realm of possibility. It fails the first test of any interpretation, the matter of overall Biblical harmony.
Originally posted by Matthew24:34
It is obvious that the Thessalonians believed that He was coming in their lifetime. If they had not believed that, they could not possibly have been deceived that he had already come. Paul does not correct that assumption because he himself has just taught them that Christ was coming in their lifetime to rescue them and punish their oppressors.
Gross speculation (if I may say so). So what if the Thessalonians believed Jesus was coming in their lifetime. So has every generation. Let me get this straight - your conclusion based on this is that Christ indeed returned in 70 AD? In order for that to be true there must exist an abundance of historical evidence documenting that our early Christian forefathers believed that Jesus returned in the 1st century; no? Sure, some of them believed that the first part of the Olivet prophecy was fulfilled in the 1st Century. However,
ALL OF THEM held that the second portion would be fulfilled at Christ's yet
future return. Can you explain that? Please explain to me why there are no secular historical records of Christ's return? And don't give me the standard preterist line about Josephus claiming that what transpired in 70 AD was His return. That's a joke! Read
Acts 1:11 and
Revelation 1:7. And while you're at it, read
Luke 17:20-24 (and do not stop reading at 17:20-21, but continue reading through
verse 24)
"For just like the lightning, when it flashes out of one part of the sky, shines to the other part of the sky, so will the Son of Man be in His day." This is the
MOST important event to take place in the
entire history of the world. There should be verifiable written records by a host of Church fathers and secular historians. Where are they?
All of your views are biased and skewed because you
filter the Scriptures through what you suppose happened in 70 AD. You plant your feet on the ground of history and tradition, rather than the Word of God. You begin with 70 AD, and work backwards, forcing Scripture to fit into your pre-determined hypothesis. Your foundation rests on a historical event, an event that rests
"outside" of the Scriptures. I suppose that Christians who don't have the benefit of a historical education will never know the real truths of the Christian faith. That is too bad Matthew, I have always felt Scripture to be sufficient.