Who is the He in Daniel 9:27?

[David505]

The process of confirming Gods covenant (originally given to patriarchs) took seven years and it was the 70th week. At the beginning of this ‘week’ Messiah was revealed and declared. (John 1:32-34, October AD26) In the midst of this week he (1) finished the transgression, (2) made an end of sins, (3) made reconciliation for iniquity, (4) brought in everlasting righteousness. (Hebrews 9:26, April AD30) By the end of this ‘week’ (5) vision and prophecy was fulfilled, (6) the most Holy was anointed. (October AD33)

At this point the Sabbatic and Jubilee system (of which Daniels 70 was a part) ended.

If I understand correctly, the cross (AD 30) completed all the elements of the 70 weeks prophecy, with exception to the anointing of the most Holy, which we understand to be the Messiah Himself, versus the temple sanctuary.

Do you point to the descent of the Holy Spirit (tongues; AD 34) as the event fulfilling Daniel’s prophesied anointing?

 

[samuel]

Vetran; you are pulling verses from context that have nothing to do with Dan. 9:27, (ie) 11:21-24; 11:31-37. As long as you go along with popular doctrinal opinion (C. I. Scofield and friends), you won't see it any other way.

These verses in Daniel have been fulfilled.

 

[Cyberseeker]

If I understand correctly, the cross (AD 30) completed all the elements of the 70 weeks prophecy, with exception to the anointing of the most Holy, which we understand to be the Messiah Himself, versus the temple sanctuary.

This need not be a 'person' versus 'place' debate. We ARE the building; Christ IS the cornerstone. BOTH are anointed together the 'most holy.' So, my way of seeing it is that this clause was fulfilled in Christs anointing and later as the anointing of the temple made without hands.

Do you point to the descent of the Holy Spirit (tongues; AD 34) as the event fulfilling Daniel’s prophesied anointing?

Yes, Acts 10:45-48 (Sep-Oct AD33) This happened 3½ yrs after the cross. It needs to be borne in mind that the last half week was still God dealing with his people the Jews because the covenanted 'weeks' had not yet ended. When the times of Jacob had ended, God opened the gospel to the Gentiles but, sadly, we have underrated this event. It was enormous in the eyes of the early Church fathers.

 

[David505]

Yes, Acts 10:45-48 (Sep-Oct AD33) This happened 3½ yrs after the cross. It needs to be borne in mind that the last half week was still God dealing with his people the Jews because the covenanted 'weeks' had not yet ended. When the times of Jacob had ended, God opened the gospel to the Gentiles but, sadly, we have underrated this event. It was enormous in the eyes of the early Church fathers.

Thanks Cyberseeker,

I guess this distinguishes Acts 2: 1-4 (Jews) from Acts 10:44-45 (Gentiles), and assumes about 3½ years in between the Holy Spirit’s anointing of Jews (Shavuot after the Messiah’s Passover) versus the Gentiles.

If so, do you have a scriptural / historical cue to substantiate the 3½-year separation?

Even so, wasn’t the 70 weeks prophecy specifically focused “upon thy (Daniel’s) people and upon thy holy city (Dan. 9: 24),†regardless of the Gentiles?

There’s also the question of the several references to 1,260 days; time, times, and half-time; 42 months, etc. These time notations have to be reconciled between Daniel and John whether one adopts a futurist or historical perspective. Discussion of these notations may require a separate topic.

 

[Cyberseeker]

I guess this distinguishes Acts 2: 1-4 (Jews) from Acts 10:44-45 (Gentiles), and assumes about 3½ years in between the Holy Spirit’s anointing of Jews (Shavuot after the Messiah’s Passover) versus the Gentiles.

Exactly – and an important distinction at that! The church that began at Pentecost was a Jewish church but the church that began at Cornelius’ house was a Gentile church. From this point (October AD33) was the full expression of the church – Jew and Gentile.

If so, do you have a scriptural / historical cue to substantiate the 3½-year separation?

I can provide an accurate chronology but it would need its own thread.

There’s also the question of the several references to 1,260 days; time, times, and half-time; 42 months, etc. These time notations have to be reconciled between Daniel and John whether one adopts a futurist or historical perspective. Discussion of these notations may require a separate topic.

True :yes

Even so, wasn’t the 70 weeks prophecy specifically focused “upon thy (Daniel’s) people and upon thy holy city (Dan. 9: 24),†regardless of the Gentiles?

This may come as a surprise, but the ‘seventieth week’ ending is all about Gentiles. Such an idea appears contradictory at first because the angel spoke of ‘your people’ referring to Daniels people, the Jews. Yes, the angel did say, “Seventy weeks are determined for your people ...†but that is the whole point. Israel is about the Gentiles! Israel was the vehicle so to speak, but salvation to the world is what was ultimately in mind.

• For I tell you that Christ became a servant to the circumcised to show God’s truthfulness, in order to confirm the promises given to the patriarchs, and in order that the Gentiles might glorify God for his mercy. As it is written, “Therefore I will praise you among the Gentiles, and sing to your name.†(Romans 15:8-9)

So when he says, “Seventy weeks are determined for Israel,†God means four hundred and ninety years to go and then the times of the Gentiles can begin. The purpose of Israel climaxes with good news to the world! Accordingly, St. Peter said to the Jews, “Men of Israel … you are heirs of the prophets and of the covenant God made with your fathers. He said to Abraham, ‘Through your offspring all peoples on earth will be blessed.’ When God raised up his servant, he sent him first to you to bless you by turning each of you from your wicked ways.†(Acts 3:12, 25-26)

In other words, he confirmed the covenant by guaranteeing first option to the children of the covenant then afterward by granting the good news to the Gentiles as promised all those years before.

 

[David505]

This may come as a surprise, but the ‘seventieth week’ ending is all about Gentiles. Such an idea appears contradictory at first because the angel spoke of ‘your people’ referring to Daniels people, the Jews. Yes, the angel did say, “Seventy weeks are determined for your people ...†but that is the whole point. Israel is about the Gentiles! Israel was the vehicle so to speak, but salvation to the world is what was ultimately in mind...In other words, he confirmed the covenant by guaranteeing first option to the children of the covenant then afterward by granting the good news to the Gentiles as promised all those years before.

Thanks Cyberseeker,

In support of the above, I imagine you would also appeal to the following selection comparing Moses' receipt of the law (Shavuot) with the descent of the Holy Spirit (Shavuot / Pentecost) upon the Jews:

5 Who serve unto the example and shadow of heavenly things, as Moses was admonished of God when he was about to make the tabernacle: for, See, saith he, that thou make all things according to the pattern shewed to thee in the mount.
6 But now hath he obtained a more excellent ministry, by how much also he is the mediator of a better covenant, which was established upon better promises.
Hebrews 8: 5-6

Then, to make Daniel's time scale fit, one cites the descent of the Holy Spirit upon the Gentiles about 3½ years later.

Without starting another topic, can you at least suggest a scriptural / historical cue to substantiate the 3½-year interval?

Otherwise, if you'd like to post a diagram summarizing your view of the 1,260 days; time, times, and half-time; 42 months, etc., in another topic, I'll do the same, and we can let members compare and contrast the two summaries.

 

[veteran]

I'm not arguing just for argument's sake. The points David has raised are exactly the reason why I cannot be in denial of that final "one week" of the prophecy being meant for the end of this world.

And I do not classify myself as a Futurist. Trying to associate what I believe with Scofield, et al, is like trying to categorize everything I believe with Dispensationalists. I'm not a Dispensationalist.

Nor can I deny the blueprint our Lord gave us with what Antiochus Epiphanes did in desolating the inside of the temple in 165 B.C. Moreover, that the Roman army under Titus did not make it inside the temple to do something like what Antiochus did, is historical fact, per the Jewish historian Josephus (100 A.D.). The Romans and Jews fighting over the temple when it accidently caught fire is not the "abomination of desolation" our Lord Jesus referenced from the Book of Daniel. One of the moderators on this Forum even looked that up in Josephus' writings and finally agreed.

Misassigning the Gentiles in place of Israel for the fulfillment of Dan.9:24 is error also. The prophecy is concerning Jerusalem and Israel, Daniel's people. Assigning the Gentiles to that instead is a sign of Dispensationalist theory. Dispensationalism is something that Scofield did practice. The Church in the Book of Acts was made up of both believing Jews and believing Gentiles, even as it is today. Christ did not preach The Gospel only to Jews. And there's no way to confirm that all those at Pentecost were only Jews.

 

[veteran]

Our Lord Jesus came to die on the cross to offer the New Covenant of His Blood. If Newton saw the Old Covenant in that somehow, then he was greatly in error.

No one is disagreeing with that. We all know that. From the very start of His ministry, He came to declare and confirm a New Covenant. That is the Gospel to the Jews in a nutshell.

Actually, there are some on this Forum that disagree with us on that, because they treat that Dan.9:27 confirming of a covenant idea as meaning the Old Covenant. I say it's instead about the "league" the "vile person" of Dan.11 makes, the vile person becoming politically strong with a certain group of false workers who support him.

I am confused as to why you keep mentioning the old covenant. Daniel's visions had noting to do with an an old covenant. Too bad they didn't realize that back then. Newton and the Reformers were New Covenant believers. The fact that you thought Newton was somehow referring to the Old Covenant means you just haven't studied eschatology and Messianic prophecy from all Biblical angles... only from the future angle.

I'm just as confused why some would infer that Christ would confirm any other covenant than the New Covenant of His Blood. And no, I've haven't studied Newton's Bible interpretations, nor do I need to. It's better to let Scripture interpret Scripture.

I do understand the idea of Christ offerring the New Covenant to the Jews and then their rejection of Christ, and the result being a destruction of Jerusalem and the temple. I know that's the idea you're driving at with this, as also from others, like Newton and scholars of the Historicist view. But that's being selective of only one part of the Daniel prophecy, and deselective of parts of history like what Antiochus did. If we must strike out certain parameters of the prophecy, or history, to make it fit a certain view, then what's that a sign of?

I do not say that out of disrespect. I say that because I was there too. I'm going to dig up some older posts where I totally ridiculed this belief I now hold as truth.

What's really interesting is, I now see some members who have been here for a while, come to the same conclusions as myself and others concerning the understanding of Daniel 9.

Like I've said before, more than just the Dan.9:25-27 verses must be weighed to rightly divide the prophecy. Daniel linked the 3 and 1/2 years of persecution of the saints with the time of trouble our Lord Jesus mentioned in His Olivet discourse, from the Book of Daniel (Dan.12:1 for one example). And our Lord's Olivet discourse is hard-linked with His Revelation to John. All that must be weighed within the Book of Daniel.

Now, you are arguing simply for the sake of arguing:

The Romans never made it inside the Jerusalem temple; it caught fire beforehand. Per our Lord Jesus, the abomination of desolation is about false worship inside... the temple (Matt.24:15; Mark 13:14)....

In another thread, I clearly showed this was incorrect. I gave a couple of valid sources and quotes showing us the Romans were indeed responsible for the burning down of the Temple and you either didn't read them or dismissed them as rubbish.

Have you ever considered that the latter part of Dan. 11 also took place in the first century and not in some distant future?

Amazing, people say they want to study and learn, but when the rubber meets the road, the tires spin instead.

You're being disrespectful.

If you've break open the works of the Jewish historian Josephus, you'll find the Romans never did setup an abomination inside the temple like what Antiochus did. It burned down before they could do any such thing, the Roman soldiers and the Jews inside fighting over access to it. Per Josephus, Titus had wanted to preserve the temple, and had no intentions of destroying it. It caught fire by accident, or the Jews inside lit the fire to prevent the Romans from spiritually desolating it, take your pick, for Josephus suggests the possibility of either.

The Daniel 11 chapter serves as a reoccuring blueprint. What Antiochus Epiphanes did in 165 B.C. fit the prophecy to a tee, much better than what happenned in 70 A.D. Yet our Lord Jesus still warned of a false one standing in the holy place as the abomination of desolation from Daniel after Antiochus had long been dead. Why do some have such a problem understanding that Antiochus served as the most accurate fulfillment of the "abomination of desolation" prophecy to date?

 

[David505]

...I do not classify myself as a Futurist. Trying to associate what I believe with Scofield, et al, is like trying to categorize everything I believe with Dispensationalists. I'm not a Dispensationalist.

Thanks veteran,

I think you and I are in general agreement regarding Daniel 9; just want to say a few words about labels.

I mentioned I have a "futurist" outlook about the prophecy in question. This just means I expect a future fulfillment. There probably is a doctrinal definition of futurism, but I don't know what it is, and I don't care, because labels (like dispensationalism) often carry doctrinal baggage.

As I've said before, many of us have divergent prophetic views, and many of us may not ever come to agreement about specific issues, until the Lord makes His end of prophecy.

In the interim, I think Vic C. (with whom I significantly disagree) made a good point about how we should simply show each other why we think we're right.

In that regard, I think Cyberseeker (with whom I also significantly disagree) is making a good effort to show the reasoning behind his position.

Making our best cases in a congenial atmosphere (like you continually do) allows other members to compare our notes, and then do their own investigating and questioning.

Getting back to labels: Who needs 'em?

 

[Sinthesis]

The temple was desolate long before the siege of Jerusalem{Mat 23:38}.

Apostate Judaism continued to rebuild Harrod's temple until it was finished sometime in the in the AD60's. By then the Pharisees and Sadducees corruptive practices had left Temple Judaism an abomination to the Lord, so God left the desolate apostate Jews to their rebellion, and Rome was allowed to destroy them as a Flood, with only the righteous Jews surviving. The Judaism of today is not the Judaism of 70AD. Today's radical Islam mirrors the apostate Judaism of the first century.

 

[Andrew]

Come Lord Jesus.
So all the confusion can end. So those deceived can see their deception.
I'll bet half the Christians on this planet will label the two witnesses as false prophets because they're so confused.
Prophets are known by their fruit, their fruit is their message; the words they speak are of God and His Word. But will you hear their words when so many believe they already have the answers and presume to be teachers.
Read through this thread. Even the title asks the question and half apparently believe the "He" is the anti-Christ, and the other half believe the "He" is Jesus.
The devil will point to the two witnesses and tell you they are the false prophet and the anti-Christ and half of you will believe him because they will inflict upon this world great tribulation and you shall share in the suffering. The half that believe the devil, will be twisting, "Not appointed to wrath" as meaning no suffering for those who love Christ and will buy into the devils pretty little lie of perfection with NO suffering. Unbelievable! Pretrib rapture, UNBELIEVABLE!
Like Christ did all the work and gave us no commission at all.
Matthew 24:12-14 "Because of the increase of wickedness, the love of most will grow cold, BUT HE WHO STANDS FIRM TO THE END WILL BE SAVED. And this gospel of the kingdom will be preached in the whole world as a testimony to all nations, AND THEN THE END WILL COME. (NIV) Emphasis mine.

I'm so sick of this "free ride we have no duty" crap, get it through your heads;
1- YOU WILL BE HERE.
2- You will preach the gospel (if your a Christian)
3- You will be persecuted by the devil, Satan, the anti-Christ and some of you will be put to death and others put into prison.
4- The "He" is the anti-Christ.

LAST LINE EDITED BY THE STAFF

 

[Sinthesis]

Come Lord Jesus.
So all the confusion can end. So those deceived can see their deception.
I'll bet half the Christians on this planet will label the two witnesses as false prophets because they're so confused.
Prophets are known by their fruit, their fruit is their message; the words they speak are of God and His Word. But will you hear their words when so many believe they already have the answers and presume to be teachers.
Read through this thread. Even the title asks the question and half apparently believe the "He" is the anti-Christ, and the other half believe the "He" is Jesus.
The devil will point to the two witnesses and tell you they are the false prophet and the anti-Christ and half of you will believe him because they will inflict upon this world great tribulation and you shall share in the suffering. The half that believe the devil, will be twisting, "Not appointed to wrath" as meaning no suffering for those who love Christ and will buy into the devils pretty little lie of perfection with NO suffering. Unbelievable! Pretrib rapture, UNBELIEVABLE!
Like Christ did all the work and gave us no commission at all.
Matthew 24:12-14 "Because of the increase of wickedness, the love of most will grow cold, BUT HE WHO STANDS FIRM TO THE END WILL BE SAVED. And this gospel of the kingdom will be preached in the whole world as a testimony to all nations, AND THEN THE END WILL COME. (NIV) Emphasis mine.

I'm so sick of this "free ride we have no duty" crap, get it through your heads;
1- YOU WILL BE HERE.
2- You will preach the gospel (if your a Christian)
3- You will be persecuted by the devil, Satan, the anti-Christ and some of you will be put to death and others put into prison.
4- The "He" is the anti-Christ.

LAST LINE EDITED BY THE STAFF

Hello sunshine. :halo While I appreciate your position on tribulation etc., your rant against all that is wrong is misplaced. The belief that Jesus is the "He" of Dan 9:27 does not necessarily lead to today's idea of a pretrib rapture.

 

[Vic C.]

Sinth,

It actually does the opposite; putting the 70th. week consecutive to the other 69 weeks negates the idea of a future seven year "tribulation period."

 

[Osgiliath]

Originally posted by Vic C.

It actually does the opposite; putting the 70th. week consecutive to the other 69 weeks negates the idea of a future seven year "tribulation period."

That's right Vic

Following Artaxerxes’ decree in 457 B.C.; after the 7 weeks (a Jubilee cycle) pass, another 62 weeks (434 years) will pass before Messiah appears (483 years total). At the end of 69 weeks, when the 70th week begins (A.D. 27), Jesus begins His ministry.

Luke carefully documents the beginning year of Christ’s ministry (A.D. 27) by stating who is ruling:

“In the fifteenth year of the reign of Tiberius Caesar—when Pontius Pilate was governor of Judea, Herod tetrarch of Galilee, his brother Philip tetrarch of Iturea and Traconitis, and Lysanias tetrarch of Abilene.... The people were waiting expectantly and were all wondering in their hearts if John might possibly be the Christ.†(Luke 3:1,15)

In that year, Jesus was baptized, being about 30 years of age. (Luke 3:21-23) Jesus appeared right on time (Galatians 4:4) at the beginning of the 70th week. [Note in Luke - "the people were waiting expectantly." Why? They were obviously familiar with the 70 weeks ;)]

The intersection of Artaxerxes’ decree with a Sunday year of the Jubilee calendar is not coincidental. The Jubilee Calendar is fully synchronized with the Messiah. He came and died right on time, in the middle year of the 70th week (A.D. 30).


***70th Week - beginning with a Sunday 'year' of the Jubilee (note the perfect synchronization with the last year of the Jubilee cycle -

Sunday - A.D. 27 (43rd day [year] of Jubilee cycle) *Beginning of week 70*
Monday - A.D. 28 (44th day)
Tuesday - A.D. 29 (45th day)

Wednesday - A.D. 30 (46th day - Messiah 'Cut off') *Middle of week 70* (Daniel 9:26,27 fulfilled)

Thursday - A.D. 31 (47th day)
Friday - A.D. 32 (48th day)
Saturday - A.D. 33 (49th day - last day [year] of Jubilee cycle) *END of week 70*

There is NO future 70th week, thus no future 7 year tribulation. The 70th week was fulfilled a long time ago by Jesus Himself. The future Great Tribulation is 1,335 days in length, not 7 years (Daniel 12:10-13)

 

[David505]

There is NO future 70th week, thus no future 7 year tribulation. The 70th week was fulfilled a long time ago by Jesus Himself. The future Great Tribulation is 1,335 days in length, not 7 years (Daniel 12:10-13)

Thanks Osgiliath,

If the future Great Tribulation is 1,335 days in length, then how does one reconcile the time notations rearding 1,260 days; time, times, and half-time; 42 months; 1,290 days?

Also, do you anticipate a future Antichrist, False Prophet, 144,000 member assembly, and Two Witnesses?

 

[Osgiliath]

Originally posted by David 505

If the future Great Tribulation is 1,335 days in length, then how does one reconcile the time notations rearding 1,260 days; time, times, and half-time; 42 months; 1,290 days?

Also, do you anticipate a future Antichrist, False Prophet, 144,000 member assembly, and Two Witnesses?

Hi David,

The Two Witnesses are allotted 1,260 days and the beast 'from the sea' - i.e. Babylon/the beast with 7 heads and 10 horns is allotted 42 months (29.53 x 42 = 1,240 days). This all happens WITHIN the 1,335 days. The Bible is not specific on this, but the 'extra' 75 days has to occur at time either 1. BEFORE the Two Witnesses begin their testimony; 2. AFTER they finish their testimony (i.e. the time of the 7 BOWLS), or 3. a combination of the two. My 'guess' is that the Two Witnesses will begin their testimony at the commencement of the Great Tribulation, and will give their testimony for 1,260 days - then, the remaining 75 days will be the time period the 7 bowls of God’s wrath are poured out on the wicked who have taken part in the administration of Babylon and those who have received the mark of the beast (don’t quote me on that last statement - though from what I’ve gathered from Scripture, that seems to be way the prophetic matrix and timeframe aligns when combining Daniel and Revelation).

Also, from the context of Daniel 12:10-13, the abomination that causes desolation appears to be a full-on assault (and probably a slaughter) of many saints who remain 1,290 days into the tribulation. My guess is that the 7 bowls are already underway at this time, and this is Lucifer’s final attempt to wipe out God’s people.

Revelation 13:7 “He was given power to make war against the saints and to conquer them.â€

Remember, the 7 bowls of God's Wrath (not the devil's wrath) are directed at WICKED PEOPLE only, not the saints.

Revelation 16:2 "The first angel went and poured out his bowl on the land, and ugly and painful sores broke out on the people who had the mark of the beast and worshiped his image."


As far as your second question? Yes to all of the above. As far as the false prophet, he and the antichrist are one in the same. He is the lamb-like beast that comes out of 'the Earth' -not the sea (Revelation 13:11); who is also the angel of the Abyss who appears at the 5th Trumpet (Revelation 9:11) - i.e. Abaddon (Hebrew), Apollyon (Greek) - both meaning Destroyer. He is the Great Red Dragon, that ancient Serpent, called the Devil and Satan (Revelation 12:9), who was cast down into the Earth (the same place from where he re-appears in Revelation 13:11 and 9:1-11). He is Lucifer (Isaiah 14:12,16).

He is the 'hand inside the glove' - i.e. the power and authority 'behind' the beast that comes up 'out of the sea' (Revelation 13:2). In other words, the antichrist/false prophet IS the devil himself, not an actual man. He is given the 'body' of a man, but he is a cherub. Just as Jesus was given the 'body' of a man to SAVE the world, Lucifer is given the 'body' of a man to DESTROY the world, yet he masquerades as God (2 Thessalonians 2:3,4 - Revelation 9:15,16) - and he appears to the world as an angel of light (2 Corinthians 11:14). Most of the world (most Christians included) will think he is God (Revelation 13:4,8,13,14 - 2 Thessalonians 2:4,9).

 

[Vic C.]

In that year, Jesus was baptized, being about 30 years of age. (Luke 3:21-23) Jesus appeared right on time (Galatians 4:4) at the beginning of the 70th week. [Note in Luke - "the people were waiting expectantly." Why? They were obviously familiar with the 70 weeks ;)]

The intersection of Artaxerxes’ decree with a Sunday year of the Jubilee calendar is not coincidental. The Jubilee Calendar is fully synchronized with the Messiah. He came and died right on time, in the middle year of the 70th week (A.D. 30).

Worth repeating.

As for the additional 30 and 45 days, they will commence after the 1,260days. Why, and what happens in this time period escapes me right now. I know Van Kampen had some interesting ideas on this. I'd have to go back to his book and reread that chapter.

 

[David505]

This all happens WITHIN the 1,335 days.

Thanks Osgiliath,

I assume your calculations do not relate to Daniel's 70th week because you regard the 70th week as already fulfilled.

Do you think we will have advance notice of this future 1,335-day time of tribulation, and how does the Rapture relate to this (1,335-day) schedule?

 

[Osgiliath]

Originally posted by David505

I assume your calculations do not relate to Daniel's 70th week because you regard the 70th week as already fulfilled

Yes, the calculations DO in fact relate to the 70 weeks mentioned in Daniel 9:25-27. The Bible teaches that the 70th week immediately followed the 69th week. The 70th week began in A.D. 27 and ended in A.D. 33. As predicted, Jesus died on time, in the middle of the 70th week in A.D. 30. [see my Sat Aug 07 post again].

Originally posted by David505

Do you think we will have advance notice of this future 1,335-day time of tribulation

1 Thessalonians 5:3 "While people are saying, "Peace and safety," destruction will come on them suddenly, as labor pains on a pregnant woman, and they will not escape.
5:4 But you, brothers, are not in darkness so that this day should surprise you like a thief."

According to the passages above, I guess the answer to your question depends on how 'in the dark' someone is. ;)

Originally posted by David505

how does the Rapture relate to this (1,335-day) schedule?

As for our 'gathering' together with the Lord (or 'rapture' if you choose to call it that) - this happens at the Second Coming, and there is only one. Jesus returns and gathers His saints (the dead first - then 'after that' the living - 1 Thessalonians 4:15-18) at the end of the 1,335th day.

 

[hisvessel1]

All i will say is that the "he" in Dan.9:27 is the antichrist....