Who is the He in Daniel 9:27?

[einstein]

I respectfully disagree with any opinion that equates the "He" with either Jesus or the anti-christ. These opinions are based on mistranslations of many passages in Dan 9 from the original Hebrew omitting relevant words which are in the original and adding words which are absent. Read in context, the most likely candidate is the same "prince" ?????? who appears in v 26.

 

[David505]

Read in context, the most likely candidate is the same "prince" ?????? who appears in v 26.

Thanks einstein,

Ok, then, who is, "the prince that shall come (Dan. 9: 26)" ?

 

[einstein]

Titus, who at the time of the destruction of the second temple was the son of the emperor Vespasian, and "prince" of Rome. When I have more time I would like to put forward quite a different interpretation of Daniel 9 looking at the entire chapter and its relationship to the Hebrew Bible, not just the 3 verses which Christians use as a proof-text regarding the messiahship of Jesus.

 

[JudaicChristian]

Titus, who at the time of the destruction of the second temple was the son of the emperor Vespasian, and "prince" of Rome. When I have more time I would like to put forward quite a different interpretation of Daniel 9 looking at the entire chapter and its relationship to the Hebrew Bible, not just the 3 verses which Christians use as a proof-text regarding the messiahship of Jesus.

I believe that the sentence structure is not in proper order.

 

[einstein]

The following is presented to provide a different perspective to what I feel is the true interpretation of Dan 9. No disrespect is intended to the Christian faith.

The KJB has the following :25 Know therefore and understand, that from the going forth of the commandment to restore and to build Jerusalem unto the Messiah the Prince shall be seven weeks, and threescore and two weeks: the street shall be built again, and the wall, even in troublous times.

26 And after threescore and two weeks shall Messiah be cut off, but not for himself: and the people of the prince that shall come shall destroy the city and the sanctuary; and the end thereof shall be with a flood, and unto the end of the war desolations are determined.

27 And he shall confirm the covenant with many for one week: and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease, and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate, even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate.

The translators of the KJB make numerous errors in their translation of these passages.
1. v25 The Hebrew text has the word "davar" which actually means "word" (or "thing"). It does not say "mitzvah" which would be the proper word for commandment. The significance of "davar" will become apparent later.

2. v25 The Hebrew text has "mashiach nagid" which actually means "an anointed one, a prince" or "an anointed prince" if you prefer. The KJB has "the Messiah, the Prince". First, there are no capital letters in Hebrew. Second, there is no definitive article in the Hebrew text here yet the KJB uses it twice. The translators knew that the word 'mashiach" meant "anointed" since that's the way it is translated in the KJB over and over. In fact there is only one place in the entire Hebrew Bible where the KJB translates the word "mashiach" as "Messiah", and that is here in Daniel 9. Why? Because they can manipulate the translation for christological purpose.

3. v25. The KJB combines the 2 time frames of seven weeks and sixty-two weeks to get sixty-nine weeks. Howver, in the Hebrew text there is an etnach after "seven weeks" which serves as a semi-colon. The 1611 edition of the KJB recognized this as follows:Know therefore and vnderstand, that from the going foorth of the commandement to restore and to build Ierusalem, vnto the Messiah the Prince, shall be seuen weekes; and threescore and two weekes, the street shall be built againe, and the wall, euen in troublous times. In fact the Hebrew text speaks of 2 time frames and 2 anointed ones. More to come. comments welcome.

 

[Sinthesis]

The following is presented to provide a different perspective to what I feel is the true interpretation of Dan 9. No disrespect is intended to the Christian faith.

The KJB has the following :25 Know therefore and understand, that from the going forth of the commandment to restore and to build Jerusalem unto the Messiah the Prince shall be seven weeks, and threescore and two weeks: the street shall be built again, and the wall, even in troublous times.

26 And after threescore and two weeks shall Messiah be cut off, but not for himself: and the people of the prince that shall come shall destroy the city and the sanctuary; and the end thereof shall be with a flood, and unto the end of the war desolations are determined.

27 And he shall confirm the covenant with many for one week: and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease, and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate, even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate.

The translators of the KJB make numerous errors in their translation of these passages.
1. v25 The Hebrew text has the word "davar" which actually means "word" (or "thing"). It does not say "mitzvah" which would be the proper word for commandment. The significance of "davar" will become apparent later.

2. v25 The Hebrew text has "mashiach nagid" which actually means "an anointed one, a prince" or "an anointed prince" if you prefer. The KJB has "the Messiah, the Prince". First, there are no capital letters in Hebrew. Second, there is no definitive article in the Hebrew text here yet the KJB uses it twice. The translators knew that the word 'mashiach" meant "anointed" since that's the way it is translated in the KJB over and over. In fact there is only one place in the entire Hebrew Bible where the KJB translates the word "mashiach" as "Messiah", and that is here in Daniel 9. Why? Because they can manipulate the translation for christological purpose.

3. v25. The KJB combines the 2 time frames of seven weeks and sixty-two weeks to get sixty-nine weeks. Howver, in the Hebrew text there is an etnach after "seven weeks" which serves as a semi-colon. The 1611 edition of the KJB recognized this as follows:Know therefore and vnderstand, that from the going foorth of the commandement to restore and to build Ierusalem, vnto the Messiah the Prince, shall be seuen weekes; and threescore and two weekes, the street shall be built againe, and the wall, euen in troublous times. In fact the Hebrew text speaks of 2 time frames and 2 anointed ones. More to come. comments welcome.

Please start with verse 24.

 

[einstein]

Rather than starting at v24 what about v1 to put things in context? Why was Daniel contemplating the calculations in Jeremiah. He knew.. that prophecy concerning the destruction of Bablyon after 70 years was complete but he was concerned about the prophecy of redemption and restoration of Jerusalem and the Temple. In the first year of Darius there were no signs of restoration. Daniel's problem was he thought the prophecies were simultaneous but they were not. One initiated with the subjugation of Jerusalem while that of restoration begins with the actual destruction of the Temple some 18 years later.

That is why Daniel prays so earnestly. He is concerned that the second promise has been annulled because of Israel's sins.

Gavriel gives Daniel understanding not only about the restoration but a conditional timeline concerning the possible emergence of the messianic era. Israel is given a time period of seventy septets (490 years) to expiate sins. If they are successful then the messianic age is ushered in with eternal righteousness and anointment of the Holy of Holies in the completed sancturary. If they fail- the second temple will be destroyed and they will be exiled and again.

If Daniel is given any understanding of what is to transpire he must have knowledge of the starting point and the destruction of Jerusalem serves as that point. I think there are numerous problems using Artaxexes (444-445 BCE) as a starting point which can be discussed at another time. For now please explain how this gives Daniel any clarity if he is told that there will be a "commandment" AFTER which such and such events will occur- when he is not given a time when that "commandment" is to be given?

 

[David505]

For now please explain how this gives Daniel any clarity if he is told that there will be a "commandment" AFTER which such and such events will occur- when he is not given a time when that "commandment" is to be given?

Thanks einstein,

I’ve looked at this passage a long time, and realize there may be problems with “clarity†regarding Christian student’s computations of Daniel’s timeline.

As best I can figure, Christian students use three methods to synchronize Daniel’s timeline with Christ’s appearance.

Method One associates the Hebrew lunisolar calendar with Gabriel’s pronouncement regarding the reconstruction of Jerusalem and the temple.

Seven weeks (49 years) pertain to the temple reconstruction. Threescore and two weeks (434 years) proceed after the reconstruction of Jerusalem’s thoroughfare and city limits—“the street shall be built again, and the wall, even in troublous times (Dan. 9:25).â€

7 (weeks) x 7 (years / week) = 49 Years of Temple Reconstruction

62 (weeks) x 7 (years / week) = 434 Years after Completion of Street and Wall

This method dates the Messianic prelude from a “commandment (Dan. 9:23, 25) [during] the first year (2 Chron. 36: 22, 23; Ezra 1: 1–3)†of Cyrus.

The method assumes 49 years of temple reconstruction followed Cyrus’ edict. Jerusalem’s renovation continued for an extended period. 434 years after the city’s completion, Christ met the cross.

Street and Wall Finished + 434 Years = Crucifixion: “Messiah…cut off (Dan. 9:26).â€

Method Two correlates Gabriel’s pronouncement with a continuous lunisolar period of 69 weeks (483 years).

7 (weeks) x 7 (years / week) = 49 Years

62 (weeks) x 7 (years / week) = 434 Years

49 Years + 434 Years = 483 Years

The second method dates the prelude’s inception from a command proclaimed during “the seventh year (Ezra 7:8)†of the Persian King Artaxerxes I, about 457 BC. 483 lunisolar years proceed to Christ’s baptism.

Seventh Year of Artaxerxes I + 483 Years = Baptism (about AD 26): “unto the Messiah (Dan. 9:25).â€

Method Three converts the 69–week continuum to equal length 360–day “prophetic†years.

This method, popularized by Sir Robert Anderson, seeks to validate the prophecy to the exact day from a supplementary command by Artaxerxes I during his “twentieth year (Neh. 2:1)†about 444-445 BC.

69 (weeks) x 7 (years / week) x 360 (days / year) = 173,880 Days

Anderson believed he fixed the date of Artaxerxes’ command and pegged the terminus to Christ’s acclamation. Sir Robert’s margin of error was approximately .0000115%.

Artaxerxes I (20th Year) + 173,882 Dys = Acclamation (about AD 32): “this thy day (Luke 19:42).â€

I’m sure we’re all anxious to read your critique.

 

[Logos57]

Major problem with that is, our Lord Jesus did not confirm any covenant for a period of "one week" (7 years) and then break it in the middle of the "one week", which is what the Daniel prophecy states that certain "he" will do.

Just what Covenant was it that our Lord Jesus did offer when He came? Thinking our Lord Jesus came to confirm the Old Covenant worship is totally a false assumption, close to blasphemy even.

I apologize about starting this thread and not answering, but I was having problems getting login to ChristianForums the last week or week and a half.

But Veteran, this passage doesn't say that Jesus confirm a covenant than broke it in the middle or end of the week.
Daniel 9:27 states that Jesus was to Confirm the true Abrahamic Covenant (which was before the Law--Galatians 3:13-21) with Jewish people before He would give it to us Gentiles at the end of the final week. "...And in the midst of the Week He shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease..." Daniel 9:27; this state that He would cause the Sacrifices of the Old Testament to cease, not start the New Covenant and than end it.

Hebrews 9:23-26
23) It was therefore necessary that the patterns of things in the heavens should be purified with these; but the heavenly things themselves with better sacrifices than these.
24) For Christ is not entered into the holy places made with hands, which are the figures of the true: but into heaven itself, now to appear in the presence of God for us.
25) Nor yet that He should offer Himself often, as the high priest entereth into the holy place every year with blood of others;
26) For then must he often have suffered since the foundation of the world: but now once in the end of the world hath He appeared to put away sin by the sacrifice of Himself.

Christ purified the Heavenly Holy Place. When He offered Himself for our sins.

Now the God of peace, that brought again from the dead our Lord Jesus, that Great Shepherd of the sheep, through the Blood of the everlasting covenant,
Hebrews 13:20

 

[Cyberseeker]

Method Three converts the 69–week continuum to equal length 360–day “prophetic†years.

This method, popularized by Sir Robert Anderson, seeks to validate the prophecy to the exact day from a supplementary command by Artaxerxes I during his “twentieth year (Neh. 2:1)†about 444-445 BC.

69 (weeks) x 7 (years / week) x 360 (days / year) = 173,880 Days

Anderson believed he fixed the date of Artaxerxes’ command and pegged the terminus to Christ’s acclamation. Sir Robert’s margin of error was approximately .0000115%.

Artaxerxes I (20th Year) + 173,882 Days = Acclamation (about AD 32): “this thy day (Luke 19:42).â€

I’m sure we’re all anxious to read your critique.

The entire pre-trib scenario stands or falls on Sir Robert calculations. If his calculations of Daniels 70 'weeks' are correct, then pre-trib is also correct. If his calculations are not correct the mat slides out from under the feet of every preacher who ever preached it.

Im not saying that the 360-day year does not exist; but Anderson manipulated it so that a spare week was left hanging in limbo. From this, the doctrine of a future 7-year prophecy is deduced. Apart from his faulted calculation there is no prophecy (none anywhere) that speaks of a future 'seven.'

 

[Osgiliath]

Oh my. Okay; let me try to explain this . First of all, the idea that 69 of the 70 weeks occurred long ago, but the 70th week is still to come is bogus and contrived. This theory forces a large gap of many centuries between the 69th week and the 70th week. Inserting a gap of many centuries between the 69th week and the 70th week is like inserting a gap of many days between Monday and Tuesday. The chronology of time cannot be broken. The 70 weeks are 70 consecutive weeks.

The synchrony of each week begins with the 1st day and ends with the 7th day. The 1st day of the week is always Sunday and the 7th day of the week is Saturday, or 'the Sabbath'. In the Scriptures, a week is NOT Friday through Thursday, or Wednesday through Tuesday. Friday through Thursday is 7 days, but not 'a week'. A week is a continuous cycle of time that remains aligned with the 7 days of Creation.

In addition, "a week of 7 years" aligns with "the Sunday year" of the Exodus. Also, "a week of 7 weeks," which amounts to 49 years (Jubilee), aligns with the Sunday year of the Exodus. (Leviticus 25:8). The reason the term "weeks" is used as the measurement of time in Daniel 9 instead of "years" is because weeks have a synchrony that years do not have. The 70 weeks of Daniel 9 cannot begin with just any year. God used the word "weeks" because the 70 weeks began with a Sunday year which aligns with the year of the Exodus.

4 decrees were issued for the restoration of Jerusalem. Cyrus gave the 1st decree in the Friday year of 536 B.C. (Ezra 1) - Darius gave the 2nd decree in the Monday year of 519 B.C. (Ezra 6) - Artaxerxes gave the 3rd decree in the Sunday year of 457 (Ezra 7) - and the 4th decree in the Sabbath (Saturday) year of 444 B.C. (Nehemiah 2). By separating the 69 weeks into two smaller pieces – the first of which was a Jubilee cycle, this would allow people to identify the right decree.

Daniel 9:25,26 indicates the decree will occur at the beginning of "7 weeks" or 49 years. A 7-week cycle is a Jubilee cycle of 49 years and it always begins with a Sunday year. Only 1 of the 4 decrees meets this specification. The decree in 457 B.C. occurred in a Sunday year, which also happens to start a new cycle of 7 weeks (Jubilee cycle). 457 B.C. is a Jubilee year - and so is 702 B.C. - the only Jubilee year mentioned in the Bible. (Isaiah 37:30). So the 3rd decree (457 B.C.) was the only possible decree. Wise foreigners figured this out, but the religious leaders in Jerusalem never did figure it out; and obviously the religious leaders in Christianity never did either.

 

[einstein]

In the first year of his reign, I, Daniel, contemplated the calculations, the number of the years that the WORD of the Lord had come to Jeremiah the prophet, since the destruction of Jerusalem seventy years.

And you shall know and understand that from the emergence of the WORD to restore and to rebuild Jerusalem until an anointed prince [shall be] seven weeks; and [in] sixty-two weeks it will return and be built street and moat, but in troubled times.

And after THE sixty-two weeks, an anointed one will be cut off, and he will be no more, and the people of the coming prince will destroy the city and the Sanctuary, and his end will come about by inundation, and until the end of the war, it will be cut off into desolation.

A proper rendering of the original Hebrew indicates that indeed there are 2 "anointed ones" and 2 separate time frames, ie. one of seven septets and one of 62 septets. It is interesting to note as I have already mentioned that the KJB inserts the definite article "the" in several spots where it does not exist in the original Hebrew text, but OMITS that word where it DOES exist, namely in defining the second time frame..."And after THE sixty-two weeks...". There is no 69 week period. Furthermore, the rendering of the number 69 in Hebrew is never done as 7+62, but as in English utilizes a base 10, ie 9+60
(see Gen 5:27)

The WORD regarding the restoration is the word of Hashem to Jeremiah in 29:10. It is not the decree of any human king. Realize that there is a discrepancy of 166 years between secular history and Jewish ecclesiatical history. Nevertheless with respect to the first anointed there can be little doubt that this is Cyrus. The WORD proclaimed by Jeremiah at the time of the destruction of the Temple was 586 BCE and the edict of Cyrus ending the exile was ca 538 BCE ie seven septets. Jewish ecclesiastical history correlates those dates to 420 BCE and 371 BCE respectively. Cyrus is the anointed of God for this purpose (Isa 45:1) The Hebrew bible is consistent in regards to this event:

21. To fulfill the WORD of the Lord in the mouth of Jeremiah, until the land was appeased for its Sabbaths; [for] all the days of its desolation it rested until the completion of seventy years. ??.
22. And in the first year of Cyrus, king of Persia, at the completion of the WORD of the Lord in the mouth of Jeremiah, the Lord aroused the spirit of Cyrus the king of Persia, and he issued a proclamation throughout all his kingdom, and put it also in writing, saying: ??.
23. "So said Cyrus the king of Persia: All the kingdoms of the earth has the Lord God of the heavens delivered to me, and He commanded me to build Him a House in Jerusalem, which is in Judea. Who among you is of all His people, may the Lord his God be with him, and he may ascend."

 

[Osgiliath]

Originally posted by einstein

The WORD proclaimed by Jeremiah at the time of the destruction of the Temple was 586 BCE and the edict of Cyrus ending the exile was ca 538 BCE ie seven septets. Jewish ecclesiastical history correlates those dates to 420 BCE and 371 BCE respectively.

Realize that there is a discrepancy of 166 years between secular history and Jewish ecclesiatical history

Perhaps. However, this ignores the synchrony of time as it is recorded in the Scriptures, and any discrepancy found elsewhere is thereby moot, and strongly suggests inadequate Scriptural (and historical) research. The Old Testament mentions the presence of a year of Jubilee during the 15th year of King Hezekiah. Since the synchrony of Jubilee cycles remains intact from the Exodus, this Sabbatical/Jubilee year sign can be accurately located because Sennacherib has to be in power and Jubilee years are always Sunday years. In addition to this, we know that kings went off to war in the Spring of the year. (2 Samuel 11:1, 1 Chronicles 20:1) History reveals that Sennacherib came to power around 705 B.C. So, the fourteenth and fifteenth years of Hezekiah have to occur after 705 B.C. The first Sunday year after 705 B.C. is 702 B.C.

Once that is known, just simply do the math - the number of years the Kings reigned on the throne is given to us plainly -

1. Hezekiah - 703 - 688 B.C.
2. Manasseh - 692 - 638 B.C.
3. Amon - 638 - 636 B.C.
4. Josiah - 636 - 607 B.C.
5. Jehoiakim - 607 - 597 B.C.
6. Jehoiachin - 597 - 596 B.C.
7. Zedekiah - 596 - 586 B.C.

*** Jerusalem's 3rd Destruction - Destruction of The Temple 586 B.C.

 

[einstein]

Hi O. No point arguing about dating systems- that's not the purpose of this thread anyway. My point is whether you use standard secular dating as you have done, or whether one favours jewish ecclesiastical dating, the proper reading of the text indicates a start time from the destruction of Solomon's temple with the first anointed being Cyrus.

 

[Vic C.]

If Titus is to be the 'he' in this passage, what was it he had confirmed for one "week"?

Also, we who believe the prophecy to be consecutive years know there is no 69 week period. Only those of the futurist belief see a 69 week period.

 

[Osgiliath]

Originally posted by einstein

the proper reading of the text indicates a start time from the destruction of Solomon's temple with the first anointed being Cyrus.

The proper reading of the text is recognizing that God defined Israel’s 490 years of probationary time in units of "70 weeks" because they perfectly synchronize with the calendar He initiated at the time of the Exodus. The "week of 7 years" clock did not suddenly begin operating at the time of the decree of Artaxerxes or Cyrus. God chose to represent Israel’s probationary time of 490 years in units of Jubilee weeks instead of actual years to affirm the synchronism of His calendar. He could have identified the time-span as 490 days (as He did with the 2,300 days in Daniel 8:14), or He could have identified the time-span as 490 years (as He does with the 1,000 years in Revelation 20:2). Instead, He chose a unit of time that aligns with the year of the Exodus. Also, even though ancient Israel did not observe the sabbatical years required by God for 430 years prior to the Babylonian captivity, God counted the sabbatical years, just as God counted the 70 weeks. The 70 years in Babylonian captivity proves that God’s clocks operate whether one favours jewish ecclesiastical dating, secular dating, or whatever man chooses to do or not do.

 

[einstein]

Scripture tells us why there were 490 years provided for the expiation of sin, etc.

To fulfill the word of the Lord in the mouth of Jeremiah, until the land was appeased for its Sabbaths; [for] all the days of its desolation it rested until the completion of seventy years. For the laws of the Shemittah see Leviticus chp 25.

 

[Osgiliath]

Originally posted by einstein

Scripture tells us why there were 490 years provided for the expiation of sin, etc.

To fulfill the word of the Lord in the mouth of Jeremiah, until the land was appeased for its Sabbaths; [for] all the days of its desolation it rested until the completion of seventy years. For the laws of the Shemittah see Leviticus chp 25.

I see where you are going wrong now. You're getting the 490 years mixed up with the 430 years of Israel's apostasy einstein. During a Jubilee cycle of 7 weeks of 49 years, there are 8 sabbatical years. There are 7 "Sabbath years" plus the year of Jubilee (also a sabbatical year) making a total of 8. During the Babylonian captivity, God used the "week of 7 years" clock to illustrate a profound point. He required Ezekiel to lay on his left side for 390 days and on his right side for 40 days as a sign to indicate the apostasy of His people. The total number of days that Ezekiel "rested" was 430 days. These 430 days represent 430 years of apostasy, because "days" within the Jubilee calendar represent "years." (Ezekiel 4:5,6). The Babylonian captivity is exactly 70 years in length because Israel and Judah had violated 70 Sabbath years. In 430 years of apostasy (NOT 490 years), there are exactly 70 Sabbatical years.

 

[einstein]

No point getting too tied up with math. Our sages state that the probation period was 70 years x7 because the law of shemittah stated that the land was to have its Sabbath every 7 years.

 

[Osgiliath]

Originally posted by einstein

No point getting too tied up with math. Our sages state that the probation period was 70 years x7 because the law of shemittah stated that the land was to have its Sabbath every 7 years.

That's okay einstein, I don't think anyone minds. Besides, I don't see this as getting 'tied up.' Others reading (whether they join the conversation or not) may be blessed with learning about things that perhaps they didn't know about, or fully understand prior. So I see this as being quite useful, even though it may seem a little redundant to us. Think about it, how many people do you know (Christian or Jewish) know anything about the 70 Sabbaths, or 70 weeks, or the synchrony of the Jubilee calendar - aside from what they have heard in passing from others? Also, it might seem like we are getting off topic, but we are not actually. This is all necessary information if one is to fully understand Daniel 9:24-27 anyway.

That being said, I'll explain why the 'sages' are incorrect (not like they haven't been before, even before the Babylonian captivity ;) ). During a Jubilee cycle of 7 weeks of 49 years, there are 8 Sabbatical years. There are 7 "Sabbath years" IN ADDITION TO the year of Jubilee (also a Sabbatical year) making a total of 8. Why do you think Ezekiel 'rested' on his side for exactly 430 days (a day for each year)? Notice the 1st day of a Jubilee is a Sabbatical year, along with the 7 Sabbath years. Then simply count 430 years (each 'block' is a Jubilee cycle - Sabbath years in blue) -

S ----- M -T - W - T - F - S

50/1-- 2--3 -- 4 - 5 - 6 - 7
--- 1-- 2--3 -- 4 - 5 - 6 - 7
--- 1-- 2--3 -- 4 - 5 - 6 - 7
--- 1-- 2--3 -- 4 - 5 - 6 - 7
--- 1-- 2--3 -- 4 - 5 - 6 - 7
--- 1-- 2--3 -- 4 - 5 - 6 - 7
--- 1-- 2--3 -- 4 - 5 - 6 - 7


S ----- M -T - W - T - F - S

50/1-- 2--3 -- 4 - 5 - 6 - 7
--- 1-- 2--3 -- 4 - 5 - 6 - 7
--- 1-- 2--3 -- 4 - 5 - 6 - 7
--- 1-- 2--3 -- 4 - 5 - 6 - 7
--- 1-- 2--3 -- 4 - 5 - 6 - 7
--- 1-- 2--3 -- 4 - 5 - 6 - 7
--- 1-- 2--3 -- 4 - 5 - 6 - 7

Notice there are a total of 8 Sabbatical years in each Jubilee cycle. Continue until you reach 430 years -

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 = Jubilee Cycles

49 + 49 + 49 + 49 + 49 + 49 + 49 + 49 + 38 = 430 Years

8 + 8 + 8 + 8 + 8 + 8 + 8 + 8 + 6 = 70 Sabbatical Years



Israel was in Babylonian captivity for EXACTLY 70 years for violating 70 Sabbatical years!


Ezekiel 4:3-6 "This will be a sign to the house of Israel.

"Then lie on your left side and put the sin of the house of Israel upon yourself. You are to bear their sin for the number of days you lie on your side. I have assigned you the same number of days as the years of their sin. So for 390 days you will bear the sin of the house of Israel.

"After you have finished this, lie down again, this time on your right side, and bear the sin of the house of Judah. I have assigned you 40 days, a day for each year.