Butch5
Member
- Jul 16, 2012
- 5,372
- 295
I've said that Paul uses a different Greek word there. It's parabolian, not katakalupto. I've shown that your claim turns Paul's argument nonsensical. I've shown you how the early church understood this and I've shown how the church the Paul wrote the letter to understood it. If the Corinthian church understood Paul's words to be saying that they needed to have their heads veiled, why would you think that your understanding is more accurate than theirs? After all, they are ones who asked the question.It says it is in the scripture "I" posted. I says hair is given to her as a covering.