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Bible Study Why is Psalm 41 about Jesus?

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Citation needed. What passages of the Old Testament taught the betrayal of the Messiah?
Zechariah 11:12–13 12 I told them, “If you think it best, give me my pay; but if not, keep it.” So they paid me thirty pieces of silver. 13 And the Lord said to me, “Throw it to the potter”—the handsome price at which they valued me! So I took the thirty pieces of silver and threw them to the potter at the house of the Lord
 
I think the question you're asking assumes that it can only be one person who is in view in Psalm 41. But the Psalm actually speaks, at certain points, of two people simultaneously: David and Christ. This is the case in verse 9. Mostly, though, the Psalm is about David, which is evident in verse 4, which, for the reason you pointed out, couldn't be about Jesus.
Why would this be the case? It seems like arbitrarily choosing random passages from the TaNaKh and applying them to the events from the New Testament, while disregarding the fact that they are out of context.

One could very well pick random passages from the events narrated about Buddha and apply them as prophecies about Christ.

That's not how prophecies are supposed to work. Prophecies are spoken in future tense. God is outside of time, but He understands how we perceive time.
 
Zechariah 11:12–13 12 I told them, “If you think it best, give me my pay; but if not, keep it.” So they paid me thirty pieces of silver. 13 And the Lord said to me, “Throw it to the potter”—the handsome price at which they valued me! So I took the thirty pieces of silver and threw them to the potter at the house of the Lord
That verse doesn't say anything about a betrayed Messiah. The chapter is not even talking about the Messiah. That's the prophet doing what God commanded him to do.
 
Why would this be the case? It seems like arbitrarily choosing random passages from the TaNaKh and applying them to the events from the New Testament, while disregarding the fact that they are out of context.

One could very well pick random passages from the events narrated about Buddha and apply them as prophecies about Christ.

That's not how prophecies are supposed to work. Prophecies are spoken in future tense. God is outside of time, but He understands how we perceive time.
The OT from Genesis to Malachi foreshadow that of Christ birth, death and resurrection as there are around 300 prophecies in the OT about Jesus.
 
The whole entire Bible is somehow about Jesus. It is literally God's Word. Jesus is God!
upon careful reading, Genesis seems to have foreshadowed Jesus. Jesus was the "Last Adam."
 
In John 13:18, Jesus says: "I am not referring to all of you; I know those I have chosen. But this is to fulfill this passage of Scripture: 'He who shared my bread has turned against me.'". The only passage of Scripture, that we currently know of, containing a statement similar to that is Psalm 41:9, which says: "Even my close friend whom I trusted, the one who shared my bread, has lifted up his heel against me."

If this isn't the passage that Jesus was referring to, if there is some Scripture that has been lost or that we are not aware of, then this question should be reconsidered.

However, if the passage that Jesus refers to is indeed Psalm 41:9, please explain to me why or how the Psalm could possibly refer to Him, considering that in verse 4 of the same Psalm, the psalmist says: "I said, 'Have mercy on me, Lord; heal me, for I have sinned against you'". Jesus was sinless, so why would we assume that verse 9 is a prophecy about Jesus while verse 4, which seems to be referring to the same person, is not a prophecy about Jesus?

David was speaking prophetically about himself but also the Lord speaking through him was also referring to Himself.


This is all throughout the Old Testament.


The Spirit of Christ spoke through the Old Testament prophets, testifying about Himself.


Read Psalm 22.


The very words Jesus spoke on the cross came out of the mouth of David who thought he was speaking about himself.
 
Why would this be the case? It seems like arbitrarily choosing random passages from the TaNaKh and applying them to the events from the New Testament, while disregarding the fact that they are out of context.

It was Jesus who indicated that the verse spoke of himself (John 13:18); there was no arbitrary choosing on the part of Christians centuries after the Bible was completed to make the verse prophetic.

One could very well pick random passages from the events narrated about Buddha and apply them as prophecies about Christ.

Well, again, it was Jesus who applied Psalm 41:9 to himself (and to Judas).

That's not how prophecies are supposed to work. Prophecies are spoken in future tense. God is outside of time, but He understands how we perceive time.

Yes. I know. See above.
 
The OT from Genesis to Malachi foreshadow that of Christ birth, death and resurrection as there are around 300 prophecies in the OT about Jesus.
If they don't have the form of prophecies, how can they be prophecies? They are just random passages taken out of context and applied to narratives from the New Testament. There is no clear prophetic message about a crucified Messiah anywhere in the TaNaKh.
 
It was Jesus who indicated that the verse spoke of himself (John 13:18); there was no arbitrary choosing on the part of Christians centuries after the Bible was completed to make the verse prophetic.



Well, again, it was Jesus who applied Psalm 41:9 to himself (and to Judas).



Yes. I know. See above.
Jesus didn't leave any writings. All the Gospels were written decades after He left Earth.
 
If they don't have the form of prophecies, how can they be prophecies? They are just random passages taken out of context and applied to narratives from the New Testament. There is no clear prophetic message about a crucified Messiah anywhere in the TaNaKh.
I can't make you see that which is prophetic in the OT as only the Holy Spirit can give you the understandings of the prophecies in the OT that many have so far been fulfilled in that of Christ birth, death and resurrection as when Christ returns then all will be fulfilled.
 
Jesus didn't leave any writings. All the Gospels were written decades after He left Earth.
2Tim 3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
2Tim 3:17 That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.

What the Prophets and Apostles wrote was all inspired by God to be written as even God gave Jesus what to speak and to do, John 12:49-50. Many things in the Bible are literal and also Spiritual as the Holy Spirit teaches us all things.
 
Jesus didn't leave any writings. All the Gospels were written decades after He left Earth.

The entire Bible is God's word to us, it's writing inspired and superintended by Him. So, then, Jesus, who is God, is the ultimate Source of all that we read in Scripture.

In any case, the Gospels record what Jesus said concerning Psalm 41:9. What makes you a better judge, two millennia removed from the event, of the veracity of Christ's words than those who wrote of them within, as you say, mere decades of their being spoken? John was actually an eyewitness of those things about which he wrote and so, of the two of you, far, far better positioned to say what Jesus did and didn't actually declare about Psalm 41:9.
 

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