Why we should stick with the (KVJ) King James Version

[Bro.Tan]

With the death of Queen Elizabeth I, Prince James VI of Scotland became King James I of England. The Protestant clergy approached the new King in 1604 and announced their desire for a new translation to replace the Bishop's Bible first printed in 1568. They knew that the Geneva Version had won the hearts of the people because of its excellent scholarship, accuracy, and exhaustive commentary. However, they did not want the controversial marginal notes (proclaiming the Pope an Anti-Christ, etc.) Essentially, the leaders of the church desired a Bible for the people, with scriptural references only for word clarification or cross-references.

This "translation to end all translations" (for a while at least) was the result of the combined effort of about fifty scholars. They took into consideration: The Tyndale New Testament, The Coverdale Bible, The Matthews Bible, The Great Bible, The Geneva Bible, and even the Rheims New Testament. The great revision of the Bishop's Bible had begun. From 1605 to 1606 the scholars engaged in private research. From 1607 to 1609 the work was assembled. In 1610 the work went to press, and in 1611 the first of the huge (16 inch tall) pulpit folios known today as "The 1611 King James Bible" came off the printing press.

With all the different Bible translations we have floating around today, it seems a hard task to choose the most accurate one. You might even question the fact of there being an accurate account of the Bible, aside from the original Hebrew Scrolls. Much of this confusion has come about because many modern day religious translators have attempted to interpret the Bible, instead of merely translating it. Therefore, when they translate the Bible they add, change or delete certain words to make it confirm to their religious doctrine. God was aware that this would happen and had John write, "For I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book: If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book: And if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophesy,God shall take away his part out of the book of life, and out of the holy city, and from the things which are written in this book." (Revelation 22:18-19).

When King James had the Bible translated he appointed 54 scholars to do the work instead of religious people. This made it possible for him to change the form, from Hebrew and Greek to English, without changing the meaning. In other words he made the Bible say the exact same thing, only in another language. This in itself was a fulfillment of prophecy, "For with stammering lips and another tongue will he speak to this people" (Isaiah 28:11). The Lord knew that his people would not always remain in their own land, speaking Hebrew, so he had Isaiah to prophesy that he would have his word put into other languages.

Now I ask you, is this too hard for God to do? God has always worked through men, especially kings, to fulfill his word.


to be continue.....

 

[Bro.Tan]

During the days of Ezra he worked through Cyrus, King of Persia, to fulfill his word. "Now in the first year of Cyrus King of Persia, that the word of the Lord might be fulfilled, the Lord stirred up the spirit of Cyrus, King of Persia, that he made a proclamation throughout all his kingdom, and put it in writing..." (Ezra 1:1). The Lord worked through Nebuchadnezzar king of Babylon to such a great extent that he even called Nebuchadnezzar his servant although he was not a true servant of God. And now have I given all these lands into the hand of Nebuchadnezzar the king of Babylon, my servant; and the beasts of the field have I given him also to serve him. And all nations shall serve him, and his son, and his son's son, until the very time of his land come: and then many nations and great kings shall serve themselves of him. (Jeremiah 27:6,7). Therefore, it should not be hard to believe that God would use King James (another Gentile King) to fulfill his word. If God is God who can stop his purpose. Remember, contrary to popular belief, God rules in the Kingdom of men.

Nevertheless, under the disguise of making the Bible easier to read and understand many religious groups have come up with error filled revisions of the Bible. Because of the lack of space, I will only point out one of these so-called modern translations. On page 30 of the April 5, 1987 edition of the Chicago Sun-Times the heading read, "Catholics given revised version of New Testament." The article began, "The Nation's Roman Catholic bishops released today an updated New Testament translation that features some gender-neutral language and modern English usages that make it easier to read aloud in worship services." This is one of many examples that I could give of a religious group changing the Word of God to fit its dogma.Israel,

The Catholics like other religious groups might have meant well in their attempt to rewrite the scripture but remember what John said in Revelation 22: about adding and taking away from the word. 18 For I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book, If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book: 19 And if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away his part out of the book of life, and out of the holy city, and from the things which are written in this book.

King James did not have this problem because he chose scholars who did not care about changing the meaning but only changing the tongue. If the word was man in Hebrew they simply made it man in English.

They did not assume that a gender-neutral word would be better as the Catholics have done. Therefore, God did want the Bible translated but not reworded. You do not have to learn to speak Hebrew to learn the Word of God. In the future God will give the earth a pure language. "...For all the earth shall be devoured with the fire of my jealousy. For then will I turn to the people a pure language, that they may all call upon the name of the Lord to serve him with one consent" (Zephaniah 3:8-9). Nevertheless, until then you can learn the Word of God in whatever language you speak, if you seek it. Paul confirmed this in 1Corinthians 14:21 saying, In the law it is written with men of other tongues and other lips will I speak, unto this people... Only beware of endless translations. There is even a New King James version which is not accurate. There might come a time when the King James version written in 1611 becomes obsolete, and that will bring about the spiritual famine that the prophet Amos wrote about "...and they shall wander from sea to sea, and from the North even to the East, they shall run to and fro to seek the word of the Lord, and shall not find it" Amos 8:12. This to must be fulfilled.

 

[Fastfredy0]

I KJV is an inferior version.

URL with a debate for each side of the argument

 

[tim-from-pa]

... Much of this confusion has come about because many modern day religious translators have attempted to interpret the Bible, instead of merely translating it. Therefore, when they translate the Bible they add, change or delete certain words to make it confirm to their religious doctrine. God was aware that this would happen and had John write, "For I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book: If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book: And if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophesy,God shall take away his part out of the book of life, and out of the holy city, and from the things which are written in this book." (Revelation 22:18-19).

When King James had the Bible translated he appointed 54 scholars to do the work instead of religious people. This made it possible for him to change the form, from Hebrew and Greek to English, without changing the meaning. In other words he made the Bible say the exact same thing, only in another language. This in itself was a fulfillment of prophecy, "For with stammering lips and another tongue will he speak to this people" (Isaiah 28:11). The Lord knew that his people would not always remain in their own land, speaking Hebrew, so he had Isaiah to prophesy that he would have his word put into other languages.....




to be continue.....

I agree 110%. I always said that translators may put their own (denominational) spin on it (I'll prove that shortly as it's not hard). Whereas when the KJV was translated, it was by scholars with no denominational ax to grind. In addition, for reasons I won't mention here, it was translated at a prophetically significant time of the Throne of King David regarding the English language. Your Isaiah 28 quote is a clue. The naysayers claim that the availability of the biblical sources were not as available then but now there are more so the newer translations are more accurate but the caveat is they put their spin to the scriptures.

Now, I'm a KJV man, but I am warming up the NJKV if for nothing else due to the fact that it mostly says the same thing but with newer language and idioms. Notice I said "mostly".Speaking of the slant each group gives to the translation, I can find problems with the NKJV in Genesis 1 already. In Genesis 1 when talking about God making two lights (the sun and moon) the conjunction "And" (KJV) was replaced with "Then" (NKJV). You see what happened here? The translators believe in a young earth creationism (or at least a younger earth than what science shows). When we write a sentence and use "and" the conjunction connects things together but not necessarily in order. However, "then" always denotes the next event. In fact, it was at this time (however long a 'day' or yom denotes) that the sun and moon first could be seen and at that time God designated them for signs (i.e. an astronomical clock for the seasons (moeds) so let's not complicate things here). The atmosphere apparently was well clouded and full of moisture from the first earth age when destruction happened between Genesis 1:1-2. The "and" reminds the reader that way back when before God designated the purpose of the sun and moon in the moeds, that he created them at one time "And the stars also" as a reminder, not "Then" because we know stars have been around for billions of years.

So I "versed" (pun intended) myself with the KJV and read the Hebrew and Greek so I know enough that I would not consider that serious, but that's just my opinion (i.e. of the seriousness of it). But I always return back to the KJV so as not to get too carried away with other doctrines and strange sounding things. We have so much Babylon mixed in with both Judaism and Christianity (due to the warring nature of Satan's Kingdom vs God's Kingdom from the start) that when I say that I follow the feasts days that I sound heretical. But in fact, regular liturgy, holidays, celebrations, manners and so forth have more Babylon in them than Carter has liver pills (for those of you old enough to remember that expression from here in Pa). LOL

 

[DavidT]

Brethren... be CAREFUL with believing and listening to so-called scholars like Dr. James White (like in the video above). He believes it alright for a NON-BELIEVER to be on Bible translation committees helping to translate The Bible.

There has been a literal battle... going on for over a century now between Bible scholars who support the Traditional Greek text that make up the 'majority' of existing Greek New Testament manuscripts, vs. those who support the so-called "Critical Text" which are from completely different Greek texts that pre-1800's Bible translations did NOT use.

The majority of Greek texts, over 2,000 manuscripts, the "Traditional text", is also called the "Majority Text" for that reason, and they make up the New Testament Greek text used in early New Testament Bible translations PRIOR to the 1800s, including the 1611 KJV.

In the 1st Edition of the 1611 KJV, the KJV translators included 2 Letters in the front, one to King James, and the other To The Reader. The translators revealed how they felt about the idea of Catholic pope in that too, that office originally named "bishop of bishops". They granted no more authority to a pope than to any other Christian brother, and they actually said that. So let's not think that removing the idea that the pope is Antichrist had anything to do with the creation of the KJV Bible.

It was King James himself that ORDAINED the 1611 KJV translation, simply because of the denominational disputes Protestants in England were having. King James forced... those Protestant scholars to actually 'work' with each other, to create the translation.

If you really want to know when the purposed corruptions in Bible translation began being pushed, it began by re-retaliation by the Catholic Church against the Protestant movement, and in attempt to bring England back under Roman authority of a pope. Later Bible translations by the United Bible Society and that use Wescott and Hort's 'new' and improved 1880's Greek New Testament revision, have had Catholic scholars on the revision committees.

If you want to know the details of the 'higher critic' attack against the Traditional Greek text used for early Bibles prior to Wescott and Hort's corrupt new 1880's Greek text, then see the following documentary...

 

[DavidT]

Something else that is unknown by many Christian brethren about Britain's Christian history. Before the office of a Roman pope ever existed, Christianity had already been pre-established in the British Isles.

When Rome was still worshiping pagan gods, Christianity had already been established in Britain in the 1st century A.D.

Apostle Paul in 2 Timothy 4:21 mentioned a "Pudens" along with a "Claudia" and "Linus". Roman historians like Tacitus mentioned the British royal family had been captured and taken to Roman as prisoners, and that a palace was built in Rome for them to dwell in, called the Palatium Britannicum. It is recorded also that they were Christians, and that the people in Rome who still worshiped pagan gods, wanted them executed. Pudens was a Roman officer stationed in Britain when he married Claudia and brought her to Rome. Linus was their son, and also later the first bishop of Rome. That is who Apostle Paul was sending greetings to.

Britain has early legends about Joseph of Arimathea, calling him "the tin man", that he was a trader in tin ore in early Britain. That is why the 'holy grail' legend originates in Britain. It is claimed his remains are buried at the ancient Glastonbury Church, the first Christian Church in Britain. St. Augustine himself, in the 4th century A.D. when he traveled to Britain to spread The Gospel, was forced to admit that there were already Christian bishops established in the Isles.

 

[kjw47]

With the death of Queen Elizabeth I, Prince James VI of Scotland became King James I of England. The Protestant clergy approached the new King in 1604 and announced their desire for a new translation to replace the Bishop's Bible first printed in 1568. They knew that the Geneva Version had won the hearts of the people because of its excellent scholarship, accuracy, and exhaustive commentary. However, they did not want the controversial marginal notes (proclaiming the Pope an Anti-Christ, etc.) Essentially, the leaders of the church desired a Bible for the people, with scriptural references only for word clarification or cross-references.

This "translation to end all translations" (for a while at least) was the result of the combined effort of about fifty scholars. They took into consideration: The Tyndale New Testament, The Coverdale Bible, The Matthews Bible, The Great Bible, The Geneva Bible, and even the Rheims New Testament. The great revision of the Bishop's Bible had begun. From 1605 to 1606 the scholars engaged in private research. From 1607 to 1609 the work was assembled. In 1610 the work went to press, and in 1611 the first of the huge (16 inch tall) pulpit folios known today as "The 1611 King James Bible" came off the printing press.

With all the different Bible translations we have floating around today, it seems a hard task to choose the most accurate one. You might even question the fact of there being an accurate account of the Bible, aside from the original Hebrew Scrolls. Much of this confusion has come about because many modern day religious translators have attempted to interpret the Bible, instead of merely translating it. Therefore, when they translate the Bible they add, change or delete certain words to make it confirm to their religious doctrine. God was aware that this would happen and had John write, "For I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book: If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book: And if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophesy,God shall take away his part out of the book of life, and out of the holy city, and from the things which are written in this book." (Revelation 22:18-19).

When King James had the Bible translated he appointed 54 scholars to do the work instead of religious people. This made it possible for him to change the form, from Hebrew and Greek to English, without changing the meaning. In other words he made the Bible say the exact same thing, only in another language. This in itself was a fulfillment of prophecy, "For with stammering lips and another tongue will he speak to this people" (Isaiah 28:11). The Lord knew that his people would not always remain in their own land, speaking Hebrew, so he had Isaiah to prophesy that he would have his word put into other languages.

Now I ask you, is this too hard for God to do? God has always worked through men, especially kings, to fulfill his word.


to be continue.....

In 2015 the divine name kjv came out, it restored Gods personal name in the over 7000 places it belongs. Gods will = his name in his bible in over 7000 places( nearly 6800 OT and over 200 NT) By satans will wicked men removed Gods name against Gods will. Why? To mislead) All the translations with the removal of Gods name do mislead. They are only used by false religions who show support for satans will on that matter over Gods will. Very sad for all those religions and those who listen to them. When the New world translation came out, those religions condemned those translators for putting Gods name back where God wants it, Why? Because they reside in darkness and give support to satans will on that matter. Run from those if you desire to enter Gods kingdom, then support his will. Jesus even showed in the Lords prayer, that for all concerned his Fathers name is the #1 issue in all of creation.

 

[Free]

In 2015 the divine name kjv came out, it restored Gods personal name in the over 7000 places it belongs. Gods will = his name in his bible in over 7000 places( nearly 6800 OT and over 200 NT) By satans will wicked men removed Gods name against Gods will. Why? To mislead)

Except that God's name is not Jehovah, it's YHWH. The closest in English is most likely Yahweh. Jehovah was a very late invention; a Latinized translation of Yahweh.

https://www.catholic.com/qa/is-gods-name-yahweh-or-jehovah

And, why doesn't "Jehovah" appear in the NT? In the NT, Kurios, the Greek translation of "Lord," appears often, even in places where quotations from the OT have YHWH. No Greek manuscript contains "Jehovah."

All the translations with the removal of Gods name do mislead.

None have removed God's name; it's just translated differently.

They are only used by false religions who show support for satans will on that matter over Gods will.

This is a violation of the ToS. Be very, very careful.

When the New world translation came out, those religions condemned those translators for putting Gods name back where God wants it, Why?

Because it isn't actually his name. The NWT also purposely mistranslates the text to promote false doctrine.

that for all concerned his Fathers name is the #1 issue in all of creation.

No, sin is. I'm pretty sure God is much more secure in himself than the Watchtower makes him out to be.

 

[Who Me]

The point of translating the bible is as Tyndale put it, ' so travellers could talk about it on their journeys, so the poor ploughman, weaver could think about it as they worked'

It is so the ordinary working man can learn about God and come to know him.

Modern translators use all available texts to give the best possible accura yet readable translation they can.

The important issue is getting the bible into people's hands and getting them to read it.

 

[kjw47]

Except that God's name is not Jehovah, it's YHWH. The closest in English is most likely Yahweh. Jehovah was a very late invention; a Latinized translation of Yahweh.

https://www.catholic.com/qa/is-gods-name-yahweh-or-jehovah

And, why doesn't "Jehovah" appear in the NT? In the NT, Kurios, the Greek translation of "Lord," appears often, even in places where quotations from the OT have YHWH. No Greek manuscript contains "Jehovah."


None have removed God's name; it's just translated differently.


This is a violation of the ToS. Be very, very careful.


Because it isn't actually his name. The NWT also purposely mistranslates the text to promote false doctrine.


No, sin is. I'm pretty sure God is much more secure in himself than the Watchtower makes him out to be.

Gods name in the language we speak is Jehovah.
Its 100% fact Gods name was removed and replaced with titles. Every supposed bible scholar on earth knows its fact. They as well know it was done against Gods will. They say 0 because with the name back in it exposes most religions as false. It misleads with the name removed. Misleads all using those translations to not enter Gods kingdom.

 

[jasonc]

Gods name in the language we speak is Jehovah.
Its 100% fact Gods name was removed and replaced with titles. Every supposed bible scholar on earth knows its fact. They as well know it was done against Gods will. They say 0 because with the name back in it exposes most religions as false. It misleads with the name removed. Misleads all using those translations to not enter Gods kingdom.

Do you speak Hebrew ?

The Jews don't ,call the Heshem that .it's not pronounced.they wont even say the consonants

 

[kjw47]

Do you speak Hebrew ?

The Jews don't ,call the Heshem that .it's not pronounced.they wont even say the consonants

We don't speak Hebrew. I am 100% confident God has made his name known. And Jesus promised to keep on making it known. Jesus doesn't tell one direct, he does it through the 1 religion he is with( 1 Cor 1:10)

 

[hawkman]

Gods name in the language we speak is Jehovah.
Its 100% fact Gods name was removed and replaced with titles. Every supposed bible scholar on earth knows its fact. They as well know it was done against Gods will. They say 0 because with the name back in it exposes most religions as false. It misleads with the name removed. Misleads all using those translations to not enter Gods kingdom.

When I pray in the name Of Jesus or pray in the name of God I have faith my prayers will be heard in heaven .

Why do I say this ? I have seen my prayers answered many times and almost instantly at times .

I use a lot of names as I speak to God and have never perceived any difference that it makes .
Could it be God knows my speaking is coming from my heart ?

The I AM .
Lord Jesus .
My Savior .
My Redeemer .
LORD GOD ALMIGHTY .

 

[kjw47]

When I pray in the name Of Jesus or pray in the name of God I have faith my prayers will be heard in heaven .

Why do I say this ? I have seen my prayers answered many times and almost instantly at times .

I use a lot of names as I speak to God and have never perceived any difference that it makes .
Could it be God knows my speaking is coming from my heart ?

The I AM .
Lord Jesus .
My Savior .
My Redeemer .
LORD GOD ALMIGHTY .

Jesus said--You MUST pray this way-Our Father)---not to anyone else.
There is no i am in the Hebrew OT--Its an error translated in trinity bibles. I will be what i will be is more correct of that Hebrew statement.
These pray from the heart as well-Matt 7:21-23

 

[hawkman]

Jesus said--You MUST pray this way-Our Father)---not to anyone else.

Your non-trinity bible said 'must pray this way' , I would like to see that , link please .

These pray from the heart as well-Matt 7:21-23

Again , does your non-trinity bible say anything about the 'heart' in those verses ? Link please .

Matthew 7

21 Not every one that saith unto me, Lord, Lord, shall enter into the kingdom of heaven; but he that doeth the will of my Father which is in heaven.

22 Many will say to me in that day, Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in thy name? and in thy name have cast out devils? and in thy name done many wonderful works?

23 And then will I profess unto them, I never knew you: depart from me, ye that work iniquity.

 

[kjw47]

Your non-trinity bible said 'must pray this way' , I would like to see that , link please .

Again , does your non-trinity bible say anything about the 'heart' in those verses ? Link please .

Matthew 7

21 Not every one that saith unto me, Lord, Lord, shall enter into the kingdom of heaven; but he that doeth the will of my Father which is in heaven.

22 Many will say to me in that day, Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in thy name? and in thy name have cast out devils? and in thy name done many wonderful works?

23 And then will I profess unto them, I never knew you: depart from me, ye that work iniquity.

Anyone doing powerful works in Jesus'name-BELIEVE, believe they are saved, and do it out of a powerful love( they think) the problem Jesus showed is weakness of the flesh and they practice sin.( work iniquity( lawlessness)

Are not Christians those who follow Jesus' footsteps as best as possible? He prayed to the Father 100% of the time.

 

[hawkman]

Anyone doing powerful works in Jesus'name-BELIEVE, believe they are saved, and do it out of a powerful love( they think) the problem Jesus showed is weakness of the flesh and they practice sin.( work iniquity( lawlessness)

Are not Christians those who follow Jesus' footsteps as best as possible? He prayed to the Father 100% of the time.

This is awkward , you don't have any links to the non-trinity bible verses I ask for in post #15 ?

Saying words are in the scripture when they are not can get serious . 'heart' and 'must' .

 

[Free]

Gods name in the language we speak is Jehovah.

No, it actually isn't. That didn't come around until the late 13th century. Jehovah is Latin, not English nor Hebrew nor Greek.

Particularly starting at 13:34, or at 26:16 if you want to get right into "Jehovah" without watching very helpful, informative background information.

https://www.logos.com/grow/nerd-jehovah-in-bible/

Its 100% fact Gods name was removed and replaced with titles. Every supposed bible scholar on earth knows its fact.

It's also 100% fact that the NWT inserts Jehovah into the NT even though it never appears there in any Greek manuscript. That is just one example of the NWT's dishonesty. Here is just one example:

John 1:23 He said: “I am a voice of someone crying out in the wilderness, ‘Make the way of Jehovah straight,’ just as Isaiah the prophet said.” (NWT)

John 1:23 He said I voice of (one) crying aloud in the desolate Make YOU straight the way of Lord [Κυρίου], according said Isaiah the prophet. (Kingdom Interlinear)

They as well know it was done against Gods will. They say 0 because with the name back in it exposes most religions as false. It misleads with the name removed. Misleads all using those translations to not enter Gods kingdom.

None of the legitimate versions mislead anyone to not enter God's kingdom, but the NWT will. Here is proof:

Col 1:16-17 because by means of him all other things were created in the heavens and on the earth, the things visible and the things invisible, whether they are thrones or lordships or governments or authorities. All other things have been created through him and for him. 17 Also, he is before all other things, and by means of him all other things were made to exist, (NWT)

Col 1:16-17 because in him it was created the all (things) in the heavens and upon the earth, the (things) visible and the (things) invisible, whether thrones or lordships or governments or authorities; the all (things) through him and into him it has been created; 17 and he is before all (things) and the all (things) in him, it has stood together, (Kingdom Interlinear)

It is easy to see that "other" does not appear in the Greek, as the Kingdom Interlinear shows, yet they put it into the English, which completely changes the meaning of what was actually written. That is further supported by the 1984 NWT:

Col 1:16-17 because by means of him all [other] things were created in the heavens and upon the earth, the things visible and the things invisible, no matter whether they are thrones or lordships or governments or authorities. All [other] things have been created through him and for him. 17 Also, he is before all [other] things and by means of him all [other] things were made to exist,

Square brackets are used for a word or phrase when it doesn't appear in the original writing. This is how we use them even outside of the Bible. So, it's pretty clear to see the deception. The NWT first used the square brackets around "other" to show that it doesn't appear in the Greek. But then, when they revised the NWT in 2013, they took the square brackets away to make it appear as though that is what the Greek states. Maybe JWs don't bother using their own Kingdom Interlinear as part of their study, but they should to do proper study.

 

[kjw47]

No, it actually isn't. That didn't come around until the late 13th century. Jehovah is Latin, not English nor Hebrew nor Greek.

Particularly starting at 13:34, or at 26:16 if you want to get right into "Jehovah" without watching very helpful, informative background information.

https://www.logos.com/grow/nerd-jehovah-in-bible/


It's also 100% fact that the NWT inserts Jehovah into the NT even though it never appears there in any Greek manuscript. That is just one example of the NWT's dishonesty. Here is just one example:

John 1:23 He said: “I am a voice of someone crying out in the wilderness, ‘Make the way of Jehovah straight,’ just as Isaiah the prophet said.” (NWT)

John 1:23 He said I voice of (one) crying aloud in the desolate Make YOU straight the way of Lord [Κυρίου], according said Isaiah the prophet. (Kingdom Interlinear)


None of the legitimate versions mislead anyone to not enter God's kingdom, but the NWT will. Here is proof:

Col 1:16-17 because by means of him all other things were created in the heavens and on the earth, the things visible and the things invisible, whether they are thrones or lordships or governments or authorities. All other things have been created through him and for him. 17 Also, he is before all other things, and by means of him all other things were made to exist, (NWT)

Col 1:16-17 because in him it was created the all (things) in the heavens and upon the earth, the (things) visible and the (things) invisible, whether thrones or lordships or governments or authorities; the all (things) through him and into him it has been created; 17 and he is before all (things) and the all (things) in him, it has stood together, (Kingdom Interlinear)

It is easy to see that "other" does not appear in the Greek, as the Kingdom Interlinear shows, yet they put it into the English, which completely changes the meaning of what was actually written. That is further supported by the 1984 NWT:

Col 1:16-17 because by means of him all [other] things were created in the heavens and upon the earth, the things visible and the things invisible, no matter whether they are thrones or lordships or governments or authorities. All [other] things have been created through him and for him. 17 Also, he is before all [other] things and by means of him all [other] things were made to exist,

Square brackets are used for a word or phrase when it doesn't appear in the original writing. This is how we use them even outside of the Bible. So, it's pretty clear to see the deception. The NWT first used the square brackets around "other" to show that it doesn't appear in the Greek. But then, when they revised the NWT in 2013, they took the square brackets away to make it appear as though that is what the Greek states. Maybe JWs don't bother using their own Kingdom Interlinear as part of their study, but they should to do proper study.

Unwise men claim they made up Jehovah's name. God has always made his name known, and Jesus promised to keep on making it known( John 17:26)
They aren't 100% sure if YHWH or YHVH is correct for the tetragramoton.
Jehovah is the true living God.

 

[kjw47]

No, it actually isn't. That didn't come around until the late 13th century. Jehovah is Latin, not English nor Hebrew nor Greek.

Particularly starting at 13:34, or at 26:16 if you want to get right into "Jehovah" without watching very helpful, informative background information.

https://www.logos.com/grow/nerd-jehovah-in-bible/


It's also 100% fact that the NWT inserts Jehovah into the NT even though it never appears there in any Greek manuscript. That is just one example of the NWT's dishonesty. Here is just one example:

John 1:23 He said: “I am a voice of someone crying out in the wilderness, ‘Make the way of Jehovah straight,’ just as Isaiah the prophet said.” (NWT)

John 1:23 He said I voice of (one) crying aloud in the desolate Make YOU straight the way of Lord [Κυρίου], according said Isaiah the prophet. (Kingdom Interlinear)


None of the legitimate versions mislead anyone to not enter God's kingdom, but the NWT will. Here is proof:

Col 1:16-17 because by means of him all other things were created in the heavens and on the earth, the things visible and the things invisible, whether they are thrones or lordships or governments or authorities. All other things have been created through him and for him. 17 Also, he is before all other things, and by means of him all other things were made to exist, (NWT)

Col 1:16-17 because in him it was created the all (things) in the heavens and upon the earth, the (things) visible and the (things) invisible, whether thrones or lordships or governments or authorities; the all (things) through him and into him it has been created; 17 and he is before all (things) and the all (things) in him, it has stood together, (Kingdom Interlinear)

It is easy to see that "other" does not appear in the Greek, as the Kingdom Interlinear shows, yet they put it into the English, which completely changes the meaning of what was actually written. That is further supported by the 1984 NWT:

Col 1:16-17 because by means of him all [other] things were created in the heavens and upon the earth, the things visible and the things invisible, no matter whether they are thrones or lordships or governments or authorities. All [other] things have been created through him and for him. 17 Also, he is before all [other] things and by means of him all [other] things were made to exist,

Square brackets are used for a word or phrase when it doesn't appear in the original writing. This is how we use them even outside of the Bible. So, it's pretty clear to see the deception. The NWT first used the square brackets around "other" to show that it doesn't appear in the Greek. But then, when they revised the NWT in 2013, they took the square brackets away to make it appear as though that is what the Greek states. Maybe JWs don't bother using their own Kingdom Interlinear as part of their study, but they should to do proper study.

Here is proof-Gen 1:27--HE created--not WE. God alone has the power and wisdom to create. That is YHWH, Jesus is not YHWH.