A person is saved, born again thus regenerated when they believe.
This is where the Spirit baptizes us into Christ and we become one spirit with Christ.
This is apart from water baptism or the baptism WITH the Holy Spirit.
Yes, you've stated these things before. Repeating your assertions doesn't make them any more correct, however. I've shown from Scripture that you're mishandling God's word in order to arrive at your three baptisms view but instead of actually engaging directly with what I've shown you from Scripture, you just ignore my points and restate your own. To me, this is a tacit acknowledgement of the faultiness of your view.
As the Scripture I've already given you clearly indicated, there is no being born-again, no being saved, except one is indwelt by the Holy Spirit. See:
Romans 8:9, 1 John 4:13, Titus 3:5, etc. This indwelling of the Spirit is the
single spiritual "baptism" a Christian undergoes in order to become a child of God. There is no other baptism taught as either common or necessary in God's word following a person's baptism into Christ by the Spirit, though there is
filling by the Spirit that may occur.
As I've also pointed out, in laying out your view you've made description into a prescription, which is a very fallacious way both of reasoning and of interpreting God's word. The Bible describes a great many things that are not at all prescriptive for the New Covenant believer: homosexuality, assassination, war, polygamy, ceremonial sacrifice of animals, circumcision, etc. So, then, the mere description of something in Scripture doesn't make it prescriptive for Christians today. On what textual grounds does the occasion of
John 20 between Jesus and his disciples form a prescription for all believers? No Christian is expected to ride in a boat in the middle of storm while Jesus walks out to them on the water. No Christian is expected to climb a mountain where they can watch a transfigured Jesus chatting with Moses and Elijah. No Christian is expected to spend an evening in the Garden of Gethsemane while Jesus agonizes about his upcoming crucifixion. Though all of these things happened to the Twelve, none of these experiences are expected to be repeated for
all Christians. So why, then, is this one event involving the Twelve in
John 20 expected to be universal for all believers? Again, description doesn't equal prescription.
When Jesus breathed the Spirit upon the Twelve in
John 20, there was no accompanying statement from Christ that his doing so was something
all Christians should expect as part of becoming a born-again child of God. And there is no explicit, repeated teaching to this effect anywhere in the entire NT, though the necessity of the indwelling Holy Spirit to salvation
is explicitly and repeatedly stated in the NT. Why this complete absence of explicit teaching if what Christ did with the Twelve in
John 20 is to be repeated in the life of every single born-again person? You've not offered any reasonable explanation, just repeated your talking points.
And so, all that you've just repeated over and over about these three baptisms doesn't convince me in the slightest that you've got the right of things.