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My only point is that it means the totality of.
I basicly agree .... though there are verses that state ALL (totality of) men die due to sin, yet we know that Enoch and Elijah did not die so there seems to be exceptions to further confuse the situation. (aside: I've imagined with no evidence that the 2 witnesses will be Enoch and Elijah and they will die which fixes the ALL exception I sited (LOL) )


Firstly, we're not told what happens to those who haven't heard [the gospel].
Hey Butch:
We've been told those that haven't heard are without excuse (Rom. 1) and the penalty for sin is death ... thus the assertion that Christ tasted death for 'everyone without exception' is some explaining to do.
Also, God knows everything. He knows who will not believe salvificly. To die for people with NO PURPOSE (in vain) does not seems reasonable. Why did Christ die for no purpose in regards to those who will not believe ... or what is the purpose of which I cannot conceive.

Aside: I did like your comments on various WORLD VIEWS. We're all effected. R.C. Sproul said he knew he has false theological assertions, he just doesn't know what they are.
 
If you look at just about any lexicon you'll see that they all agree. Neshamah, ruach, noe, and pnuema, mean wind or breath. The translation spirit is usually somewhere down the list.

So your qualifications are ... looking in lexicons. Sorry, but that doesn't make you a capable translator.
 
Okay, just so I get my 2 cents in too before we end

1. The world (this world) will not be saved ( I could be wrong but I thought you made that point too)
2. The "Whosoever" is generic. The question is : why do some become part of the "whosoever(s)" and some don't?
Answer: see #3
3. No one can have faith in Jesus (become part of the "whosoever(s)", unless first given to them as a gift from
God
4. If Jesus died for the sin of the world, and hence, remitted their sin, then the world, and those in it, cannot be
held liable for sin , period.
5. If He is the propitiation for ours and also the world's sins, then how can anyone be judged? By that logic,
everyone's sins were remitted. For any not covered (that is, having to face judgment), then He obviously wasn't
their propitiation. it simply can't be both ways at the same time. If the propitiation is for the whole world's sins,
then the whole world has to be covered by it. If it's not, then either He wasn't, or it wasn't.
6. (my own) - Jesus Christ is Savior. As Savior He had to do EVERYTHING necessary to save with nothing left undone
or left to us, to include faith. We are NOT saved by our faith, we are saved by Christ's faith - He was faithful to the
Father, we weren't. His faithfulness is given as a gift to those He saves.
Who said we have to end?
You make statements that are not biblical. And I don't mean just to me,,,it is not mainline Christianity.

1. Agreed. THIS WORLD will disappear and the New World will come about when Jesus returns and sets up His Kingdome that will last for eternity.

2. The WHOSOEVER is generic? What does that mean? WHOSOVER means WHOSOEVER. Does God not know how to communicate with us? Are we allowed to change the meaning in t he bible language? As to WHY some believe and some don't...there are many reasons. But John 3:16-18 clearly states that WHOEVER believes will be saved. It does say God gives the faith,,,it just says WHOEVER BELIEVES WILL NOT PERISH, or will be saved.

Acts 16:30-31
30and after he brought them out, he said, “Sirs, what must I do to be saved?”

The Jailer Converted

31They said, “Believe in the Lord Jesus, and you will be saved, you and your household.”


Is this not clear? The jailer asked what he must do to be saved.
The answer was simple and to the point: BELIEVE in the Lord Jesus and you will be saved.
This is a COMMAND.
It does not say: Only those that God makes believe will be saved...
It states a clear command: BELIEVE AND you will be saved.
The believing comes first,,,
the salvation comes second.

3. Faith is given to God to those that desire it.
Please list some verses we could discuss that state that faith comes first and then belief.
Thanks.

Hebrews 11:6
6And without faith it is impossible to please him, for whoever would draw near to God must believe that he exists and that he rewards those who seek him.


Again, a very clear statement. WHOEVER WOULD DRAW NEAR TO GOD....
we must draw near to God and believe that He exists and that He rewards those WHO SEEK HIM.

We must seek God.
We must draw near to God.
God rewards us.


John 6:35
35Jesus said to them, “I am the bread of life; whoever comes to me shall not hunger, and whoever believes in me shall never thirst.


Jesus Himself states that WHOEVER comes to Him...
and WHOEVER BELIEVES in Him....

If God did the choosing...Jesus would have NO REASON to state the above because it would be common knowledge.



John 20:29
29Jesus said to him, “Have you believed because you have seen me? Blessed are those who have not seen and yet have believed.”


Again, we have a statement by Jesus.
They believed BECAUSE they have seen.
So they see FIRST,
and THEN they believe.

Many more....



4. Your number 4 is rather amusing. I wish you'd explain that a little better.
Rather, it's like this: IF GOD chooses who will be saved,,,how could those going to hell (the not chosen) be held responsible for their sins?
Is this justice?
Is God not a just God?

Acts 17:31
31because He has fixed a day in which He will judge the world in righteousness through a Man whom He has appointed, having furnished proof to all men by raising Him from the dead.”

Hebrews 6:10
10For God is not unjust..He will not forget your work...


If God is to judge our innocence or guilt....
It must be OUR guilt that He judges...and not HIS decision to pass over a person.
This is not justice....
and God would be a liar.


5. The bible says that Jesus died for EVERYONE'S sins. Your reasoning is not logical. Due to y our belief in the atonement being limited, you have a problem understanding that Jesus' sacrifice was for all mankind at all times. Whether or not they choose to take advantage of this gift is up to each individual person. I know it's a concept you have not considered...but you should.

Jesus died for the sins of the whole world. Whole world means all men ever born.

1 John 2:2
2and He Himself is the propitiation for our sins; and not for ours only, but also for those of the whole world.

1 Timothy 2:6
6who gave Himself as a ransom for all,

Hebrews 2:9
9.....so that by the grace of God He might taste death for everyone.



6. Please post some verses that state we are saved by the faith of Jesus.
From Genesis to Revelation...we are saved by OUR personal faith.
 
rogerg



I've touched on this above and how our world view affects our understanding of the Bible. However, it seems you've undermined your own argument here. Above you dismissed scholars and posted a few passages about false teachers and here you're telling me you use a concordance, which was likely written by a scholar. Why would you use a concordance when you've associated them with false teachers?

I would also argue that you don't use the Bible and a concordance alone. You're here on this forum. You hear things others have said. I'm sure some of those things have made their way into your theology. Likewise, I assume you attend church. The pastor gives messages each week. Those too, I'm sure, have influenced what you believe. Then there is Sunday School, Bible studies on Wednesday night, etc. All of these influence what we believe to some degree. However, if you only attend Reformed get-togethers then you're just reaffirming the theology you already believe. If on the other hand you meet with Christians of different beliefs you will see that many passages can be understood differently based on one's worldview, and the presuppositions they bring to the table. I've said all of this to say that most if not virtually all Christians learn things about the Bible long before they actually read the Bible. And, often those things are incorrect. Thus many, if not most, new Christians first approach the Bible with a false or partially false set of presuppositions. In other words they come to the Bible with colored glasses. Some never learn that they're wearing colored glasses and as such, never get to a proper understanding of Scriptures.

You asked if anything else is needed. In order to be saved, no, one can read the Bible and be saved. Is anything else needed to properly understand the entirety of the Bible, well that would depend on the presuppositions one brings to the text. If we start off with incorrect presuppositions how can we possible understand the text? For instance, you believe that God chose who would be saved prior to their birth. That's a presupposition you bring to the text. If you're correct, then that leads you toward a correct understand of the Bible. However, if you're incorrect, it's going to lead you to an incorrect understanding of the Bible. It's going to cause problems for you when you see passages like, 'whosoever will, let he come and drink freely of the water of life. Based on your presupposition you can't accept that face value. It's contradictory to your presupposition. Since you believe your presupposition is correct, (most people do) you're forced to try to find another meaning for the passage. I've heard things like, 'only the elect can be the "whosoever will"'. But you see, that's adding an unwarranted imposition on the text. The passage says nothing about the elect. When we have situations like this we shouldn't be questioning the text, we should be questioning our presuppositions. Maybe God didn't choose the elect before they were born.



I might have agreed with you here if you'd have said, two or three passages understood correctly and in context. When you say one can confirm a doctrine with two or three passages, that's only true if one understands them correctly. If one misunderstands the text, they are not confirming a doctrine, they are simply in error. Let's look at an example. How many passages do you have that support the idea that the Christ came only for the elect, 2, 5, 10? The exact number doesn't matter. I would submit that all of those passages that you would put forward, you're misunderstanding. As I've pointed out. John 1:9 shows irrefutably that all people can believe. As I've said there's no way around that. What that shows us is that the presupposition you bring to the text, that only certain people can believe, is wrong. Thus that presupposition is leading you to misinterpret passages of Scripture this then leads to other doctrinal error as doctrines are built one upon the other.

Again, using the Bible to understand the Bible is great, as long as you start with the right presuppositions. If you start with incorrect presuppositions you're likely going to be off base.



How do I know it's correct? The simple answer is harmony. It brings harmony to the Scriptures. When you look at a lot of threads on Christian forums you find each side tossing passages of Scripture back and forth. One side has this set of Scriptures and the other side has another set of Scriptures. I can accept the Scripture passages from both sides, they harmonize. For instance. One side argues that God chose who would be saved and they quote John 6 where Jesus said, 'no one can come to me unless the Father draws him'. The other side quotes Jesus' words in John 12, 'If I am lifted up I will draw all men to me'. Both of those statements are from Jesus, thus they are true. If our theology can't harmonize both passages without changing them, then there is a problem with our theology, not the words of Scripture. We don't need to change what Jesus said, we need to change our theology.

Another point is that it is just common sense. If I tell my kids they can have ice cream, would I expect the neighbor kid to come and say you said I could have ice cream. No, I didn't tell the neighbor kid he could have ice cream, I told my kids. The neighbor kid would be using my words out of context. It's just common sense that I would expect my words to apply to the ones to which they were said.

Another point is context. Does the understanding fit the context of what is going on?



What difference does it make who the audience was? Roger, it makes an immense difference. This is one of the big problems I find among Christians, they don't pay attention to who is being addressed. If we have any hope of correctly understanding of the Bible we had better pay attention to who is the audience is. One of the big problems in Christianity today is people taking passages of Scripture and either using them out of context or applying them universally.

Paul wrote to the Corinthian Christians and said that they weren't spiritual, that they were carnal. Since they were Christians should we say that all Christians aren't spiritual, they're carnal? After all, what difference does it make who the audience is? Jesus said to the Jews that they were of their father the devil. Would that apply to the Apostles, Nicodemus, Paul? They were all Jews. After all what difference does it make who the audience is?

Roger, I say all of this to show that it's not the Scriptures. We can post Scripture all day long. The real issue is the presuppositions we bring to the Scriptures. Unless we have the correct ones we're not going to correctly understand the Bible. Any time we run into passages of Scripture that we can't fit into our theology we shouldn't question the Scriptures. We should question our understanding. We have something wrong. Either it's our presuppositions, the amount of information we have, or we're simply not understanding something correctly.
Amen brother!
:clap
Changing the character and message of God is a big problem in Christianity.
 
It does determine how we see things - I agree with you on that, The difference between us is that you see the mind relative to natural man, I see it relative to those born-again. Totally different lenses. God grants faith to those born-again and through/by that faith He leads the mind into spiritual wisdom.

[Phl 2:13 KJV] 13 For it is God which worketh in you both to will and to do of [his] good pleasure.
Roger, that passage has nothing to do with your post here. Paul was talking about something specific with that church. Please, please, please, look at context.
 
Premise 1: God tasted death for everyone without exception
Premise 2: Psalm 5:5b You hate all who do evil. Deut. 25:16b everyone who acts unjustly is utterly repulsive to the Lord your God.
Premise 3: Christ knows who will believe salvificly and who will not believe
Conclusion: Christ knowingly died for many people that He hates and was/is repulsed by
 
2. The WHOSOEVER is generic? What does that mean? WHOSOVER means WHOSOEVER. Does God not know how to communicate with us? Are we allowed to change the meaning in t he bible language? As to WHY some believe and some don't...there are many reasons. But John 3:16-18 clearly states that WHOEVER believes will be saved. It does say God gives the faith,,,it just says WHOEVER BELIEVES WILL NOT PERISH, or will be saved.

[Phl 1:6 KJV] 6 Being confident of this very thing, that he which hath begun a good work in you will perform [it] until the day of Jesus Christ:

Isn't believing a "good work"? If so, then it is Christ who began it and continues it.


[Phl 1:29 KJV] 29 For unto you it is given in the behalf of Christ, not only to believe on him, but also to suffer for his sake;

Those who come to belief in Christ can only do so because that belief had first been given to them. Is Phi 1:29 not
biblical?

[Jer 17:9 KJV] 9 The heart [is] deceitful above all [things], and desperately wicked: who can know it?

[Rom 10:10 KJV] 10 For with the heart man believeth unto righteousness; and with the mouth confession is made unto salvation.

Just to mouth words of belief doesn't count. One must FIRST truly have that belief in the heart - it has to be real. Any true confession must originate from that -- and God alone places it there. Then, the desire to speak of it will not /cannot be denied

The answer was simple and to the point: BELIEVE in the Lord Jesus and you will be saved.
See Phi 1:29 above

29Jesus said to him, “Have you believed because you have seen me? Blessed are those who have not seen and yet have believed.”

Again, we have a statement by Jesus.
They believed BECAUSE they have seen.
So they see FIRST,
and THEN they believe.
No, they saw because they believed. But... that believe was first placed into their hearts by God. Please see below

6And without faith it is impossible to please him, for whoever would draw near to God must believe that he exists and that he rewards those who seek him.

Again, a very clear statement. WHOEVER WOULD DRAW NEAR TO GOD....
we must draw near to God and believe that He exists and that He rewards those WHO SEEK HIM.TH

My reply above will be to every point you make regarding faith/belief. To have true faith, God must first instill it into one's heart, otherwise, because the heart of natural man is "deceitful above all things" (see Jer 17:9)
it would be impossible for the heart to give faith to itself.

The question underlying pretty much all of your points, but which you haven't yet addressed, is how does one
come to faith?

[Jer 17:9 KJV] 9 The heart [is] deceitful above all [things], and desperately wicked: who can know it?

If the "heart is desperately wicked" as the Bible tells us it is, how then is it possible that it would give us true belief?


10For God is not unjust..He will not forget your work...

If God is to judge our innocence or guilt....
It must be OUR guilt that He judges...and not HIS decision to pass over a person.
This is not justice....
and God would be a liar.

You forgot to include verse 9:
9: But, beloved, we are persuaded better things of you, and things that accompany salvation, though we thus speak

Accompany, not cause.

John 6:35
35Jesus said to them, “I am the bread of life; whoever comes to me shall not hunger, and whoever believes in me shall never thirst.


Jesus Himself states that WHOEVER comes to Him...
and WHOEVER BELIEVES in Him....

od did the choosing...Jesus would have NO REASON to state the above because it would be common knowledge.
The below clearly tells us who the "whosoever(s)" are: those alone whom the Father draws.

[Jhn 6:44, 45 KJV]
44 No man can come to me, except the Father which hath sent me draw him: and I will raise him up at the last day.
[Jhn 6:45 KJV]
45 It is written in the prophets, And they shall be all taught of God. Every man therefore that hath heard, and hath learned of the Father, cometh unto me.

65 And he said, Therefore said I unto you, that no man can come unto me, except it were given unto him of my Father.

[Jhn 6:66 KJV] 66 From that [time] many of his disciples went back, and walked no more with him.

in 66, even though they had been with Him, saw Him, heard Him, and observed His miracles, they nevertheless left Him. So, just the hearing, seeing, walking with Him in the human physical sense, didn't produce true faith - God must be the one to do it and He doesn't give it to everyone.

5. The bible says that Jesus died for EVERYONE'S sins. Your reasoning is not logical. Due to y our belief in the atonement being limited, you have a problem understanding that Jesus' sacrifice was for all mankind at all times. Whether or not they choose to take advantage of this gift is up to each individual person. I know it's a concept you have not considered...but you should.

Jesus died for the sins of the whole world. Whole world means all men ever born.

If that is true (and I don't believe for a second it is), then everyone MUST be saved, because, as you say, He died for everyone. Therefore, there can be no sin remaining for which anyone can be judged .... unless, that is, it wasn't intended for everyone. It would be a total contradiction in logic to conclude otherwise - both can't be correct or true at the same time. Just like the "whosoever(s)"

4. Your number 4 is rather amusing. I wish you'd explain that a little better.
Rather, it's like this: IF GOD chooses who will be saved,,,how could those going to hell (the not chosen) be held responsible for their sins?
Is this justice?
Is God not a just God?

we are brought under God's judgment because of the transgression of Adam and Eve. Their transgression still hangs over mankind and mankind remains under it. It hasn't gone away.

[1Co 15:21-22 KJV]
21 For since by man [came] death, by man [came] also the resurrection of the dead.
22 For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive.

Adam's and Eve's transgression brought to life the law of sin and death which governs this current world.
Everyone born is under it. By it, is God justified to judge mankind because all eagerly participate in it.

1 John 2:2
2and He Himself is the propitiation for our sins; and not for ours only, but also for those of the whole world.

1 Timothy 2:6
6who gave Himself as a ransom for all,

Pertains to the next world, not this one

6. Please post some verses that state we are saved by the faith of Jesus.
From Genesis to Revelation...we are saved by OUR personal faith.
[Phl
9 And be found in him, not having mine own righteousness, which is of the law, but that which is through the faith of Christ, the righteousness which is of God by faith:
10 That I may know him, and the power of his resurrection, and the fellowship of his sufferings, being made conformable unto his death;
11 If by any means I might attain unto the resurrection of the dead.

[Gal 2:16 KJV]
16 Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.

You said that we are saved by our faith, not Christ's. If that's true, then our faith is of the law and a work.
Per 2:16 : "not justified by the works of the law". But you say our faith is what justifies us. So, it either has to be
by the "faith of Christ", or by our faith, which faith, is a work of the law. It has to be one or the other. Further, and as importantly, it goes on to inform us that Christ's faith is what causes our faith (if given).
 
Premise 1: God tasted death for everyone without exception
Premise 2: Psalm 5:5b You hate all who do evil. Deut. 25:16b everyone who acts unjustly is utterly repulsive to the Lord your God.
Premise 3: Christ knows who will believe salvificly and who will not believe
Conclusion: Christ knowingly died for many people that He hates and was/is repulsed by
You seem to have a problem using the New Testament.

Is there an idea of God hating people in the NT?

The OT says we are to love our neighbor....
Jesus said we are to love our enemy too.

The OT allowed a certificate of divorce for any reason.
Jesus said we are not to divorce except for adultery.

What do you think the conflict is all about???
 
rogerg

Don't think so. How can a whole, complete mind that needs renewing, renew itself? It was "given" to them as the verses tell us. Some greater force external to themselves had to instill (or give) it within them

Hi Roger,

look at the passage.

And be not conformed to this world: but be ye transformed by the renewing of your mind, that ye may prove what is that good, and acceptable, and perfect, will of God.(Rom. 12:2 KJV)

Don't do this=red
Do this=blue

It can renew itself by immersing itself in the Scriptures.

Everyone is blinded until born-again - Jews, Gentiles, everyone. Regardless of who is spoken about, the lesson is for everyone: that until born again, we're blind

There's nothing in Scripture that supports this.

Wait -- I'm not sure of what your point is? Christ IS God -- He is the Word of God. Faith in one is faith in the other;
the two are inseparable

[Jhn 14:8-9 KJV]
8 Philip saith unto him, Lord, shew us the Father, and it sufficeth us.
9 Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou [then], Shew us the Father?

[Luk 1:47 KJV] 47 And my spirit hath rejoiced in God my Saviour.
[Luk 2:11 KJV] 11 For unto you is born this day in the city of David a Saviour, which is Christ the Lord.
[Act 13:23 KJV] 23 Of this man's seed hath God according to [his] promise raised unto Israel a Saviour, Jesus:
[Heb 1:8 KJV] 8 But unto the Son [he saith], Thy throne, O God, [is] for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness [is] the sceptre of thy kingdom.

the word "Saviour" can be seen linking Christ to God, and visa versa. There aren't two Saviours.
No disrespect, but if you don't believe/understand that, you may be missing a very large portion of the Gospel.

Actually, it's very difficult for me to believe you think otherwise- so, guess I'm confused.
You do believe Christ is God, right?

The Trinity is a whole different topic. It's a different thread. The point is that in the passage there is a distinction made between Christ and the Father. That's clear. The belief spoken of there is belief of the Father, not Jesus.

No offense Roger, but I don't think it's me that's missing a good part of the Gospel. I have laid out pages of commentary on different passages of Scripture explained "in context". On the other hand, you're proposing concepts that are flatly refuted by Scripture.

Sorry Butch5, not to be rude, but except for a very few, limited situations, I don't agree with the context argument you make.

Well, unless you start interpreting Scripture in context you won't come to proper understanding of the Bible. Context is important for everything. Proof texting will not lead you to understanding.

They had the apostle Paul (a pretty authoritative resource since we can see that God Himself chose/appointed him), and Silas, no slouch himself. Yet they congratulated the Bereans for confirming against Scripture, what they had told them.

They had Paul, correct. He was the one they were questioning. Who else were they going to turn to to see if what Paul was saying was true?

All that matters for the sake of the discussion relative to renewing/spiritual wisdom, is that it was "given" to them

Again, you've got that out context. You really seem sincere to me. I really think you are searching. However, until you realize that "your mind" isn't the only thing needed to understand the Bible you're probably not going to make much headway.
 
Hi Butch5

look at the passage.

And be not conformed to this world: but be ye transformed by the renewing of your mind, that ye may prove what is that good, and acceptable, and perfect, will of God.(Rom. 12:2 KJV)

Don't do this=red
Do this=blue

It can renew itself by immersing itself in the Scriptures.


Noe, don't think so. Don't think the mind is able to renew itself spiritually speaking. The mind is "deceitful" and "desperately wicked", therefore it is not possible that it could transform itself because to the natural mind, spiritually speaking, it deems good as being bad, and deems bad as being good.

[Jer 17:9 KJV] 9 The heart [is] deceitful above all [things], and desperately wicked: who can know it?

[Tit 3:5 KJV] 5 Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he saved us, by the washing of regeneration, and renewing of the Holy Ghost;

There's nothing in Scripture that supports this.

Yes, there is:

[Act 26:18 KJV] 18 To open their eyes, [and] to turn [them] from darkness to light, and [from] the power of Satan unto God, that they may receive forgiveness of sins, and inheritance among them which are sanctified by faith that is in me.
[Eph 4:18 KJV] 18 Having the understanding darkened, being alienated from the life of God through the ignorance that is in them, because of the blindness of their heart:

The Trinity is a whole different topic. It's a different thread. The point is that in the passage there is a distinction made between Christ and the Father. That's clear. The belief spoken of there is belief of the Father, not Jesus.

Thread? Sorry your statement just make doesn't make sense to me. Christ IS God or he's not- so which is it? There is no distinction between them. If He wasn't then His sacrifice would have been insufficient to save those chosen. if He wasn't God, then His offering would only have been sufficient to save Himself (as He would have been only a man). Following, is an addition to the other verses about this I posted to you in my last reply to you, please see the following:

[Col 2:9-10 KJV]
9 For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.
10 And ye are complete in him, which is the head of all principality and power:

So, please answer: are you saying you believe Christ is God? Yes or no?
If you don't believe so. I don't see how we could ever be able to communicate, or come to agreement, since that concept is so fundamental to the Bible. I'll assume no answer means that, no, you don't believe Christ is God.

They had Paul, correct. He was the one they were questioning. Who else were they going to turn to to see if what Paul was saying was true?
Wait - didn't you say they had no resource except Scripture only? My response was they had Paul.
Sorry, please refresh my memory - what point were you making in your original reply? Or are you saying Paul wasn't an apostle with full apostolic authority by saying "only Paul"?

Again, you've got that out context. You really seem sincere to me. I really think you are searching. However, until you realize that "your mind" isn't the only thing needed to understand the Bible you're probably not going to make much
I don't think that, and not sure why you think I think that. As I've said, and the Bible confirms, all that is necessary is the Bible alone and a renewed mind. Here I'll post again:

[2Ti 3:16-17 KJV]
16 All scripture [is] given by inspiration of God, and [is] profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
17 That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.

If the Bible thoroughly furnishes the man of God in and of itself, why would anything not therein be needed.
To add to it, would be a violation of Scripture


Well, unless you start interpreting Scripture in context you won't come to proper understanding of the Bible. Context is important for everything. Proof texting will not lead you to understanding.
Disagree. The Bible stands on its own and does not need inferences added to it. God wrote exactly (no more, no less) what He wanted known. It is perfect and complete as-is.

[2Ti 3:16-17 KJV]
16 All scripture [is] given by inspiration of God, and [is] profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
17 That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.
 
I basicly agree .... though there are verses that state ALL (totality of) men die due to sin, yet we know that Enoch and Elijah did not die so there seems to be exceptions to further confuse the situation. (aside: I've imagined with no evidence that the 2 witnesses will be Enoch and Elijah and they will die which fixes the ALL exception I sited (LOL) )

Hi Fredy,

As I understand it both of them did die. In Hebrews 11 Paul lists several Godly men and women, among which is Enoch, and says these all died not having received the promises. Also, 15 years after Elijah was taken up in the chariot we find that he wrote a letter to one of the kings. So, wherever he went in the chariot he did return to earth. As I understand the event with Enoch, he was transposed. He was put somewhere else, like we see with Philip after he baptized the Eunuch. In Hebrews Paul says that Enoch was translated that he should not see death. Some translations have take up. However, the word means to transpose or translate. It has the idea of swapping places with two things. Paul later in that chapter says they died not having received the promises. This leads me to believe that at some point Enoch's life was in danger and God took him out of that situation and placed him somewhere else. Regarding Elijah, there is some discussion. Some try to get around the time difference, between when Elijah was taken up and when the letter was written. I think the main problem is that many think Elijah was taken into "Heaven" as opposed to "the heavens" (sky). We know that neither Enoch nor Elijah went to "Heaven". John makes that clear.

And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven. (Jn. 3:13 KJV)

So, wherever they went, it wasn't to Heaven. I would submit that both Enoch and Elijah were placed somewhere else just as Philip was.

39 And when they were come up out of the water, the Spirit of the Lord caught away Philip, that the eunuch saw him no more: and he went on his way rejoicing.
40 But Philip was found at Azotus: and passing through he preached in all the cities, till he came to Caesarea. (Acts 8:39-9:1 KJV)


Personally, I think the two witnesses will be Elijah and John. Jesus said that He would send Elijah and in Revelation John was told that he would, in the future, prophesy to kings.

10 And I took the little book out of the angel's hand, and ate it up; and it was in my mouth sweet as honey: and as soon as I had eaten it, my belly was bitter.
11 And he said unto me, Thou must prophesy again before many peoples, and nations, and tongues, and kings. (Rev. 10:10-11 KJV)




Hey Butch:
We've been told those that haven't heard are without excuse (Rom. 1) and the penalty for sin is death ... thus the assertion that Christ tasted death for 'everyone without exception' is some explaining to do.
Also, God knows everything. He knows who will not believe salvificly. To die for people with NO PURPOSE (in vain) does not seems reasonable. Why did Christ die for no purpose in regards to those who will not believe ... or what is the purpose of which I cannot conceive.

Aside: I did like your comments on various WORLD VIEWS. We're all effected. R.C. Sproul said he knew he has false theological assertions, he just doesn't know what they are.
I would submit that Romans 1 doesn't address those who haven't heard. Paul says they hold the truth in unrighteousness. That means they heard the truth but rejected it. He also says they knew God.

The Bible does say that God knows all things. However, I'm not sure if it says God knows things that don't exist. A decision one will make in the future isn't a thing now. I know the common consensus is that God knows everything that will ever happen. I'm not sure if that can be proven from Scripture. I'm not saying that He doesn't know everything that will ever happen, I simply don't know. There are passages of Scripture that make me wonder.

11 And the angel of the LORD called unto him out of heaven, and said, Abraham, Abraham: and he said, Here am I.
12 And he said, Lay not thine hand upon the lad, neither do thou any thing unto him: for now I know that thou fearest God, seeing thou hast not withheld thy son, thine only son from me. (Gen. 22:11-12 KJV)


This seems to indicate that God didn't know before.

Regarding those who won't believe. I think there is good reason He died for them. If He died for them then there is reason to condemn them for their refusal. If He didn't die for them then they are not accountable for refusing.

Thanks! I find this to be a big, if not the biggest, issue that needs to be addressed. I don't think many consider how their beliefs about all things affect how they understand and thus believe the Bible. A good example is what a person believes a man is. As I said to Roger, If one believes a man is a spirit living in a flesh body, he will understand the Bible differently than the one who believes that man is a physical living being. That one presupposition will make a drastic difference in how the two see and understand the Scriptures. I know because I've held both presuppositions and the difference they make in understanding Scripture is immense.
 
It's not a gift. A gift is "a thing given willingly to someone without payment (no conditions)". But to be saved by the dualism (belief in a power other than God's) of "free will" requires your to believe (belief being a condition and therefore not a gift) in the gospel.
The teaching that salvation is a "gift" is a trick to obscure the fact that a man's self-determined (free will) salvation requires a person to do something (a work) to be saved. (John 6:29 Jesus replied, “The work of God is this: to believe in the One He has sent” describes belief as a WORK and the WORK is done by God.)

A self-caused action (self-determination) is impossible, since a cause is prior to an effect, and one cannot be prior to himself. Therefore, all actions are ultimately caused by a God.
FF....
Dualism is belief in two gods.
The Good God...and the Bad God, which would be satan.
Some persons believe this...it's known as dualism (although it could refer to other subjects too, besides Christianity).

Unfortunately for those that do not believe it...
there are conditions to being saved.
Everything Jesus said to do, or not do, is a condition to being saved.

If you'd like a list, I could supply one...but check out these verses:

Romans 16:17-19
17Now I urge you, brethren, keep your eye on those who cause dissensions and hindrances contrary to the teaching which you learned, and turn away from them.
18For such men are slaves, not of our Lord Christ but of their own appetites; and by their smooth and flattering speech they deceive the hearts of the unsuspecting.
19For the report of your obedience has reached to all; therefore I am rejoicing over you, but I want you to be wise in what is good and innocent in what is evil.


Apparently, being wise is commanded by Paul and apparently it is not predetermined by God or this admonishan would not be necessary. And, apparently, we are to behave a certain way, as Paul and every other writer commands.

Romans 11:20-22
20Quite right, they were broken off for their unbelief, but you stand by your faith. Do not be conceited, but fear;
21for if God did not spare the natural branches, He will not spare you, either.
22Behold then the kindness and severity of God; to those who fell, severity, but to you, God’s kindness, if you continue in His kindness; otherwise you also will be cut off.


Verse 20: They were once attached to something (the vine), but were broken off for their unbelief.
But we are to stand by our faith..

Verse 21: If God did not spare the Jews,,,He will not spare us either. (the Gentiles).

Verse 22: To those who fall --- severity.
To us --- God's kindness IF WE CONTINUE in His kindness or we will be cut off too.

Yes, there certainly are conditions:
Jesus said we will be judged by our deeds.
John 5:28-29
28“Do not marvel at this; for an hour is coming, in which all who are in the tombs will hear His voice,
29and will come forth; those who did the good deeds to a resurrection of life, those who committed the evil deeds to a resurrection of judgment.



Also, what is the gift in Ephesians 2:8? According to you,,,a gift is a trick.....
8For by grace you have been saved through faith; and that not of yourselves, it is the gift of God;

Looks like GOD doesn't believe offering a free gift is a trick....


As to John 6:29....It speaks of the work of God.
What is the work of God??
The answer is in John 6:27...it tells us we are to seek Jesus to have eternal live.
WE ARE TO SEEK JESUS....sounds like free will doesn't it?

Jesus said the Father sent Him for this very purpose:
To seek Jesus to have eternal life.
THIS is the work of God,,,the will of God, that we believe in Jesus.

Work = Will

2041 érgon (from ergō, "to work, accomplish") – a work or worker who accomplishes something. 2041 /érgon ("work") is a deed (action) that carries out (completes) an inner desire (intension, purpose).

source: https://biblehub.com/greek/2041.htm

God's inner desire is that we be saved by believing in His Son.
1 Timothy 2:4
[God] desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth.
 
Hi Butch5




Noe, don't think so. Don't think the mind is able to renew itself spiritually speaking. The mind is "deceitful" and "desperately wicked", therefore it is not possible that it could transform itself because to the natural mind, spiritually speaking, it deems good as being bad, and deems bad as being good.

[Jer 17:9 KJV] 9 The heart [is] deceitful above all [things], and desperately wicked: who can know it?

[Tit 3:5 KJV] 5 Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he saved us, by the washing of regeneration, and renewing of the Holy Ghost;
Hi Roger,

If not why did Paul tell them to do it? If it was something that automatically happened to them there'd be no reason for Paul to even say it. We'd expect something akin to don't be conformed to this world because your mind will be renewed.

Look closely at the passage. Your claim is that this is something that happens to them when they're born again. Roger, they are already Christians. He's writing to the church. Why didn't this happen when they believed? Why is he telling believers not to be conformed to the world? If their mind was automatically renewed how could they be conformed to the world? He is telling people who have already professed faith in Christ and been baptized not to be conformed to the world, but to be transformed. Why, if that automatically happens, would he do that?


Yes, there is:

[Act 26:18 KJV] 18 To open their eyes, [and] to turn [them] from darkness to light, and [from] the power of Satan unto God, that they may receive forgiveness of sins, and inheritance among them which are sanctified by faith that is in me.
[Eph 4:18 KJV] 18 Having the understanding darkened, being alienated from the life of God through the ignorance that is in them, because of the blindness of their heart:
How does this prove that people are blinded until born again? Neither of these passages mention being born again.
Thread? Sorry your statement just make doesn't make sense to me. Christ IS God or he's not- so which is it? There is no distinction between them. If He wasn't then His sacrifice would have been insufficient to save those chosen. if He wasn't God, then His offering would only have been sufficient to save Himself (as He would have been only a man). Following, is an addition to the other verses about this I posted to you in my last reply to you, please see the following:

[Col 2:9-10 KJV]
9 For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.
10 And ye are complete in him, which is the head of all principality and power:

So, please answer: are you saying you believe Christ is God? Yes or no?
If you don't believe so. I don't see how we could ever be able to communicate, or come to agreement, since that concept is so fundamental to the Bible. I'll assume no answer means that, no, you don't believe Christ is God.
As I said, I'm not discussing the Trinity in this thread. All it will do is derail the thread. If you'd like to discuss it start a new thread.
Wait - didn't you say they had no resource except Scripture only? My response was they had Paul.
Sorry, please refresh my memory - what point were you making in your original reply? Or are you saying Paul wasn't an apostle with full apostolic authority by saying "only Paul"?
Roger, Paul was the one bringing them the Gospel. The Bereans were checking the Scriptures to see if what Paul said was true. They didn't know if what he said was true, that's why they checked the Scriptures. If someone came to you telling you something you never heard, would make them the source you go to to see if it was true?

That would be like someone comes saying aliens are coming from mars. Would you use him to verify his own statements?
I don't think that, and not sure why you think I think that. As I've said, and the Bible confirms, all that is necessary is the Bible alone and a renewed mind. Here I'll post again:

[2Ti 3:16-17 KJV]
16 All scripture [is] given by inspiration of God, and [is] profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
17 That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.

If the Bible thoroughly furnishes the man of God in and of itself, why would anything not therein be needed.
To add to it, would be a violation of Scripture
I know you don't think that. But that doesn't mean it is so. I've tried to get this across several different ways. The Bible doesn't speak. You don't open it and hear Ephesians 2:8 and then an explanation of what that means. You have to read it. That means you are reading something that has been translate by someone else. You are reading what someone else thinks the Bible says. That's one interpretation. Then you filter those words through your mind. That's a second interpretation. Now, are both of those interpretation correct? That depends. What are the presuppositions the translator is bringing to the text? What are the presuppositions you're bringing to the text? His presuppositions will be based on his world view. What is his world view? Your presuppositions will be based on your world view. What is your world view? Like I said earlier, a person's view of what a man is will have a profound difference in his understanding of Scripture. A person's view of what a man is, is part of his world view.

I know you say you're only using the Bible. The thing is, every verse you read, you either understand it correctly or incorrectly. If you understand it incorrectly then it's not what the Bible says. The words may read the way you see them, but may not mean what you think they men. Proof texting is when one takes a passage of Scripture devoid of context and applies it to something else. For instance, in Romans 9 Paul says God chose Jacob and rejected Esau before they were born. People then point to this passage and say, see God chooses who will be saved before they're born. The problem is that the passage isn't talking about who will be saved. It's talking about God fulfilling His promise to Abraham. So the passage is being used out of context. It's talking about one thing but people use it to try and prove something that the passage is not even addressing. That's why I keep emphasizing context. You're doing that. Many of the passages you're posting may say the words you read, but they don't apply where you're applying them.
Disagree. The Bible stands on its own and does not need inferences added to it. God wrote exactly (no more, no less) what He wanted known. It is perfect and complete as-is.

[2Ti 3:16-17 KJV]
16 All scripture [is] given by inspiration of God, and [is] profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
17 That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.
Roger, the only way we can move forward is if we entertain the idea that our understanding can be wrong.
 
Hey Butch:
As I understand it both of them did die. In Hebrews 11 Paul lists several Godly men and women, among which is Enoch, and says these all died not having received the promises. Also, 15 years after Elijah was taken up in the chariot we find that he wrote a letter to one of the kings.
This is the first time I've heard that Enoch and Elijah died. I googled it and the sites said they did not die. I checked Heb 11: 5 By faith [that pleased God] Enoch was caught up and taken to heaven so that he would not have a glimpse of death; and he was not found because God had taken him; for even before he was taken [to heaven], he received the testimony [still on record] that he had walked with God and pleased Him. Later in verse 13 it does say "All these died in faith" Seems Hebrews indicates Enoch didn't die in verse 5 and then if you take "ALL" in verse 13 to mean "everyone without exception" in the previous verses you have Enoch dying. That would be a contradiction ... again making me wary of the word ALL.

I was too lazy to check on your Elijah proof that he died. Anyways, this is not a biggy except for I think it's cool that someone didn't die.


"Heaven" as opposed to "the heavens" (sky). We know that neither Enoch nor Elijah went to "Heaven". John makes that clear.

And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven. (Jn. 3:13 KJV)
Interesting points. That amount of info on the intermediate state is not abundant, a lot of guessing going on.


So, wherever they went, it wasn't to Heaven.
Hmmm, plausible. I heard speculation that we get an 'intermediate body' when we die ... maybe Enoch kept his earthly body ....lol ... wild speculation by me.... not a biggy


Personally, I think the two witnesses will be Elijah and John.
John? John the Baptist? ... O.K., I'll bite. Why John and which John? (Aside: I guessed Elijah and Moses ... though, it might be Sonny and Cher ):chin


I would submit that Romans 1 doesn't address those who haven't heard.
is evident within them [in their inner consciousness], for God made it evident to them. 20 For ever since the creation of the world His invisible attributes, His eternal power and divine nature, have been clearly seen, being understood through His workmanship [all His creation, the wonderful things that He has made], Sounds like Romans 1 is addressing everyone without exception as it refers to people are aware to God's creation and that would be everyone as everyone has seen the land, animals, sky ...

That means they heard the truth but rejected it.
Might be a stretch as the definition of "the truth" is not given. I don't see 'the gospel' mentioned in the chapter ... more likely 'the truth' is they have seen God's creation which is mentioned in the chapter.


The Bible does say that God knows all things. However, I'm not sure if it says God knows things that don't exist. A decision one will make in the future isn't a thing now. I know the common consensus is that God knows everything that will ever happen. I'm not sure if that can be proven from Scripture. I'm not saying that He doesn't know everything that will ever happen, I simply don't know. There are passages of Scripture that make me wonder.
Now this is VERY INTERESTING. (Aside: I see the pesky ALL in knows ALL things again ... lol)
I believe God knows NOTHING from things that don't exist. He knows everything about things that will exist, but the cause is Himself (the creator)
Arminians have two lines of thought:
1) Open theists (Arminian minority) say it's not possible to know the future
2) Arminian majority think God looks into the future to learn. How He does this is a mystery. (aside: Since nothing comes from nothing it is IMPOSSIBLE for God to see what nothing will do... but if one believes God knows something from nothing then you are left with dualism; another power other than God's power that will cause NOTHING to do something in the future. Of course, God is eternal so there was no future to see until He created time)

Then my side, the Calvinists, say God knows all things and Calvinints believe they have the answer as to HOW God knows all things: because He is the cause of all things. Acts 17:28, Hebrews 1:3; Colossians 1:16 (simple metaphysics ... cause-effect)


12 And he said, Lay not thine hand upon the lad, neither do thou any thing unto him: for now I know that thou fearest God, seeing thou hast not withheld thy son, thine only son from me. (Gen. 22:11-12 KJV)

This seems to indicate that God didn't know before.
If taken literally, I agree. To prevent a contradiction it is said to be an amphomorphic statement. (aside: I wish God wouldn't do that ... checks for lightning in the sky)


Regarding those who won't believe. I think there is good reason He died for them. If He died for them then there is reason to condemn them for their refusal. If He didn't die for them then they are not accountable for refusing.
Well, if you are a good Arminian and believe God loves everyone ... then why increase the penalty for those He loves? Anyways, God sets all the rules .... if He wants to 'turn up the heat' for people in hell He can just do it ... when One sets all the rules and is not subject to the rules as God is, you don't need to satisfy human (dust) reasoning.
(Aside: One should probably establish God's purpose and then speculate on why God does A or B based on His purpose and not try to figure out things from our stand point .... but His ways are not our ways)


I find this to be a big, if not the biggest, issue that needs to be addressed. I don't think many consider how their beliefs about all things affect how they understand and thus believe the Bible. A good example is what a person believes a man is. As I said to Roger, If one believes a man is a spirit living in a flesh body, he will understand the Bible differently than the one who believes that man is a physical living being. That one presupposition will make a drastic difference in how the two see and understand the Scriptures. I know because I've held both presuppositions and the difference they make in understanding Scripture is immense.
Agreed! But one has to make presuppositions (i.e. the Bible is God's infallible word, God does not contradict himself) or you have chaos. (It would suck if the Moslems had more accurate suppositions than us Christians.) (I hope the 'universalists' presuppositions are correct rather than mine).
 
[Phl 1:6 KJV] 6 Being confident of this very thing, that he which hath begun a good work in you will perform [it] until the day of Jesus Christ:

Isn't believing a "good work"? If so, then it is Christ who began it and continues it.


[Phl 1:29 KJV] 29 For unto you it is given in the behalf of Christ, not only to believe on him, but also to suffer for his sake;

Those who come to belief in Christ can only do so because that belief had first been given to them. Is Phi 1:29 not
biblical?

[Jer 17:9 KJV] 9 The heart [is] deceitful above all [things], and desperately wicked: who can know it?

[Rom 10:10 KJV] 10 For with the heart man believeth unto righteousness; and with the mouth confession is made unto salvation.

Just to mouth words of belief doesn't count. One must FIRST truly have that belief in the heart - it has to be real. Any true confession must originate from that -- and God alone places it there. Then, the desire to speak of it will not /cannot be denied


See Phi 1:29 above


No, they saw because they believed. But... that believe was first placed into their hearts by God. Please see below



My reply above will be to every point you make regarding faith/belief. To have true faith, God must first instill it into one's heart, otherwise, because the heart of natural man is "deceitful above all things" (see Jer 17:9)
it would be impossible for the heart to give faith to itself.

The question underlying pretty much all of your points, but which you haven't yet addressed, is how does one
come to faith?

[Jer 17:9 KJV] 9 The heart [is] deceitful above all [things], and desperately wicked: who can know it?

If the "heart is desperately wicked" as the Bible tells us it is, how then is it possible that it would give us true belief?




You forgot to include verse 9:
9: But, beloved, we are persuaded better things of you, and things that accompany salvation, though we thus speak

Accompany, not cause.


The below clearly tells us who the "whosoever(s)" are: those alone whom the Father draws.

[Jhn 6:44, 45 KJV]
44 No man can come to me, except the Father which hath sent me draw him: and I will raise him up at the last day.
[Jhn 6:45 KJV]
45 It is written in the prophets, And they shall be all taught of God. Every man therefore that hath heard, and hath learned of the Father, cometh unto me.

65 And he said, Therefore said I unto you, that no man can come unto me, except it were given unto him of my Father.

[Jhn 6:66 KJV] 66 From that [time] many of his disciples went back, and walked no more with him.

in 66, even though they had been with Him, saw Him, heard Him, and observed His miracles, they nevertheless left Him. So, just the hearing, seeing, walking with Him in the human physical sense, didn't produce true faith - God must be the one to do it and He doesn't give it to everyone.



If that is true (and I don't believe for a second it is), then everyone MUST be saved, because, as you say, He died for everyone. Therefore, there can be no sin remaining for which anyone can be judged .... unless, that is, it wasn't intended for everyone. It would be a total contradiction in logic to conclude otherwise - both can't be correct or true at the same time. Just like the "whosoever(s)"



we are brought under God's judgment because of the transgression of Adam and Eve. Their transgression still hangs over mankind and mankind remains under it. It hasn't gone away.

[1Co 15:21-22 KJV]
21 For since by man [came] death, by man [came] also the resurrection of the dead.
22 For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive.

Adam's and Eve's transgression brought to life the law of sin and death which governs this current world.
Everyone born is under it. By it, is God justified to judge mankind because all eagerly participate in it.



Pertains to the next world, not this one


[Phl
9 And be found in him, not having mine own righteousness, which is of the law, but that which is through the faith of Christ, the righteousness which is of God by faith:
10 That I may know him, and the power of his resurrection, and the fellowship of his sufferings, being made conformable unto his death;
11 If by any means I might attain unto the resurrection of the dead.

[Gal 2:16 KJV]
16 Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.

You said that we are saved by our faith, not Christ's. If that's true, then our faith is of the law and a work.
Per 2:16 : "not justified by the works of the law". But you say our faith is what justifies us. So, it either has to be
by the "faith of Christ", or by our faith, which faith, is a work of the law. It has to be one or the other. Further, and as importantly, it goes on to inform us that Christ's faith is what causes our faith (if given).
Hi Roger,
I've read all of the above but it's going on 11 pm here and there's too much to be addressed right now.
I will say this: I do find it incredible how two persons could read the New Testament and come to such differing views.
You say I don't explain HOW we get faith.
We get it by our own free will in wanting to be with God for eternity and understanding that there are conditions to this.
Some are too concerned with other things in life and do not consider eternity....or they just don't care to stop sinning and this is one of the conditions. (not that we could stop completely - another topic).

Are you, maybe, following another person instead of Jesus?
Are you following the Westminster Confession of Faith for instance?
This has to be the case...one cannot read the New Testament and come up with the ideas you have.
For instance...that we don't need faith - we use the faith of Jesus.
And when was free will taken away from us---we certainly had it in the Garden.

Tomorrow morning....
 
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Hi Butch5

Hi Roger,

If not why did Paul tell them to do it? If it was something that automatically happened to them there'd be no reason for Paul to even say it. We'd expect something akin to don't be conformed to this world because your mind will be renewed.
Told them to do what? I'm not sure which you're referring to as the passage isn't identified on your reply


Look closely at the passage. Your claim is that this is something that happens to them when they're born again. Roger, they are already Christians. He's writing to the church. Why didn't this happen when they believed? Why is he telling believers not to be conformed to the world? If their mind was automatically renewed how could they be conformed to the world? He is telling people who have already professed faith in Christ and been baptized not to be conformed to the world, but to be transformed. Why, if that automatically happens, would he do that?

Complete spiritual wisdom doesn't happen at the instant of becoming born-again. It is progressive revelation ,but, I believe only those born again will be able to truly fathom/believe the Bible's message(s) when they hear them.
How does this prove that people are blinded until born again? Neither of these passages mention being born again.
Thought I sent the below in a prior reply. But I'll include them now

[2Co 4:4 KJV] 4 In whom the god of this world hath blinded the minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God, should shine unto them.
[Jhn 12:40 KJV] 40 He hath blinded their eyes, and hardened their heart; that they should not see with [their] eyes, nor understand with [their] heart, and be converted, and I should heal them.

As I said, I'm not discussing the Trinity in this thread. All it will do is derail the thread. If you'd like to discuss it start a new thread.
Not a discussion, a simple yes or no question. Your refusal to answer says you don't see Christ as God. If you did, there wouldn't be anything to discuss, right? Matter of fact, even if you say no, we still don't have to discuss it.

Roger, Paul was the one bringing them the Gospel. The Bereans were checking the Scriptures to see if what Paul said was true. They didn't know if what he said was true, that's why they checked the Scriptures. If someone came to you telling you something you never heard, would make them the source you go to to see if it was true?

That would be like someone comes saying aliens are coming from mars. Would you use him to verify his own statements?
Absolutely would check but that's the point. They used Scripture as-is for checking, they didn't need to add context or outside interpretation

know you don't think that. But that doesn't mean it is so. I've tried to get this across several different ways. The Bible doesn't speak. You don't open it and hear Ephesians 2:8 and then an explanation of what that means. You have to read it. That means you are reading something that has been translate by someone else. You are reading what someone else thinks the Bible says. That's one interpretation. Then you filter those words through your mind. That's a second interpretation. Now, are both of those interpretation correct? That depends. What are the presuppositions the translator is bringing to the text? What are the presuppositions you're bringing to the text? His presuppositions will be based on his world view. What is his world view? Your presuppositions will be based on your world view. What is your world view? Like I said earlier, a person's view of what a man is will have a profound difference in his understanding of Scripture. A person's view of what a man is, is part of his world view.

So then you think that God and the Bible are wrong when they informed us that :
[2Ti 3:16 KJV] 16 All scripture [is] given by inspiration of God, and [is]
profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
[2Ti 3:17 KJV] 17 That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.
know you say you're only using the Bible. The thing is, every verse you read, you either understand it correctly or incorrectly. If you understand it incorrectly then it's not what the Bible says. The words may read the way you see them, but may not mean what you think they men. Proof texting is when one takes a passage of Scripture devoid of context and applies it to something else. For instance, in Romans 9 Paul says God chose Jacob and rejected Esau before they were born. People then point to this passage and say, see God chooses who will be saved before they're born. The problem is that the passage isn't talking about who will be saved. It's talking about God fulfilling His promise to Abraham. So the passage is being used out of context. It's talking about one thing but people use it to try and prove something that the passage is not even addressing. That's why I keep emphasizing context. You're doing that. Many of the passages you're posting may say the words you read, but they don't apply where you're applying them.

Well if we use the rules the Bible sets-forth for its own interpretation we shouldn't get too far afield.
Remember, the Bible was written to be about Christ. So, with God as the Bible's author and also it's writer of instructions, I think He would very well know how to lead us to its true message without help or interference from anyone else.

Roger, the only way we can move forward is if we entertain the idea that our understanding can be wrong.
I definitely entertain that idea and try to reaffirm my interpretations by/with the Bible alone.
 
Hey Butch:

This is the first time I've heard that Enoch and Elijah died. I googled it and the sites said they did not die. I checked Heb 11: 5 By faith [that pleased God] Enoch was caught up and taken to heaven so that he would not have a glimpse of death; and he was not found because God had taken him; for even before he was taken [to heaven], he received the testimony [still on record] that he had walked with God and pleased Him. Later in verse 13 it does say "All these died in faith" Seems Hebrews indicates Enoch didn't die in verse 5 and then if you take "ALL" in verse 13 to mean "everyone without exception" in the previous verses you have Enoch dying. That would be a contradiction ... again making me wary of the word ALL.

I was too lazy to check on your Elijah proof that he died. Anyways, this is not a biggy except for I think it's cool that someone didn't die.
Hi Fredy,

I'm aware most people believe they didn't die. However, as we see, Paul said Enoch did die. As I pointed out the word that is translate taken up, literally means to transpose, or to swap. I'm not sure how translators get taken up to Heaven out of transpose. It seems to me we are seeing translator bias. We see that Philip too was transposed. Here is a literal translation of the passage.

5 By faith Enoch was translated that he should not see death; and was not found, because God had translated him: for before his translation he had this testimony, that he pleased God. (Heb. 11:5 KJV)

Not sure how they get Heaven out of that. Again, John said that no man had gone into Heaven except Jesus, and John wrote is Gospel in the 90's AD. One would have to wonder where Enoch went or is. The passage you posted says Enoch was taken to Heaven, yet John said no one had gone to Heaven. I wouldn't put much stock in that translation.
There is no contradiction the way I explained it previously.


Interesting points. That amount of info on the intermediate state is not abundant, a lot of guessing going on.

As I understand it there is no guessing because there is no intermediate state per se. Man is dead. We know what that is.
Hmmm, plausible. I heard speculation that we get an 'intermediate body' when we die ... maybe Enoch kept his earthly body ....lol ... wild speculation by me.... not a biggy

Again, as I understand it man is dead so there is no body. The body decays in the ground.
John? John the Baptist? ... O.K., I'll bite. Why John and which John? (Aside: I guessed Elijah and Moses ... though, it might be Sonny and Cher ):chin
The apostle. He was told that he would prophesy in the future.

And I took the little book out of the angel's hand, and ate it up; and it was in my mouth sweet as honey: and as soon as I had eaten it, my belly was bitter.
11 And he said unto me, Thou must prophesy again before many peoples, and nations, and tongues, and kings. (Rev. 10:10-11 KJV)


is evident within them [in their inner consciousness], for God made it evident to them. 20 For ever since the creation of the world His invisible attributes, His eternal power and divine nature, have been clearly seen, being understood through His workmanship [all His creation, the wonderful things that He has made], Sounds like Romans 1 is addressing everyone without exception as it refers to people are aware to God's creation and that would be everyone as everyone has seen the land, animals, sky ...


Might be a stretch as the definition of "the truth" is not given. I don't see 'the gospel' mentioned in the chapter ... more likely 'the truth' is they have seen God's creation which is mentioned in the chapter.
I think it is. I think the truth is what has been revealed.

18 For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who hold the truth in unrighteousness;
19 Because that which may be known of God is manifest in them; for God hath shewed it unto them.
20 For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse:
21 Because that, when they knew God, they glorified him not as God, neither were thankful; but became vain in their imaginations, and their foolish heart was darkened. (Rom. 1:18-21 KJV)



It says God wrath is revealed against the ungodliness and unrighteousness of men who hold the truth in unrighteousness. So, the people Paul is talking about are those who hold the truth in unrighteousness. I agree this could give us the fate of those who hold the truth in unrighteousness. But what does it say about those who don't?
Now this is VERY INTERESTING. (Aside: I see the pesky ALL in knows ALL things again ... lol)
I believe God knows NOTHING from things that don't exist. He knows everything about things that will exist, but the cause is Himself (the creator)
Arminians have two lines of thought:
1) Open theists (Arminian minority) say it's not possible to know the future
2) Arminian majority think God looks into the future to learn. How He does this is a mystery. (aside: Since nothing comes from nothing it is IMPOSSIBLE for God to see what nothing will do... but if one believes God knows something from nothing then you are left with dualism; another power other than God's power that will cause NOTHING to do something in the future. Of course, God is eternal so there was no future to see until He created time)
Yeah, see, I don't go there because it's just speculation.
Then my side, the Calvinists, say God knows all things and Calvinints believe they have the answer as to HOW God knows all things: because He is the cause of all things. Acts 17:28, Hebrews 1:3; Colossians 1:16 (simple metaphysics ... cause-effect)
Until we get to things like sin, then you guys run into problems.
If taken literally, I agree. To prevent a contradiction it is said to be an amphomorphic statement. (aside: I wish God wouldn't do that ... checks for lightning in the sky)
I take it literally, however, I do acknowledge that it may be figurative, which is why I said I don't know.
Well, if you are a good Arminian and believe God loves everyone ... then why increase the penalty for those He loves? Anyways, God sets all the rules .... if He wants to 'turn up the heat' for people in hell He can just do it ... when One sets all the rules and is not subject to the rules as God is, you don't need to satisfy human (dust) reasoning.
(Aside: One should probably establish God's purpose and then speculate on why God does A or B based on His purpose and not try to figure out things from our stand point .... but His ways are not our ways)
But, He did set the standard for justice. So, I think we can figure it out. I'm not an Arminian, but I do believe all have the ability to believe. I also don't subscribe to Eternal Conscious Torment so I don't think that bears on it. If one sin is enough to condemn a man what is another sin? On the flip side of your argument we have, how can a God, who is love, create people for destruction? I'm sure you've heard that argument and I'm not asking for an answer, I'm just pointing out that there is a flip side
Agreed! But one has to make presuppositions (i.e. the Bible is God's infallible word, God does not contradict himself) or you have chaos. (It would suck if the Moslems had more accurate suppositions than us Christians.) (I hope the 'universalists' presuppositions are correct rather than mine).
Absolutely. that's what I keep trying to get across to Roger. Everyone has presuppositions. There's no way to avoid them. Presuppositions are why we don't touch a hot stove. A child will. We don't because we presuppose that it will hurt.
 
Hey Butch:
Until we get to things like sin, then you guys run into problems.
Both sides get into problems explaining sin.
Aside: I did hear an explanation from my side (Reformed) that explains the issue of sin, but it is a minority opinion...though it made sense to me (I am still 'chewing' on it and my favorite guy said he has never heard a solid explanation)

but I do believe all have the ability to believe.
Even those that have not heard the gospel and if so, what specifically must they do to be saved?
(Your side IMO always tries to fit your concept of what God must do to be fair to come up with statements like "everyone without exception must be given a chance to be saved).

how can a God, who is love, create people for destruction?
Because God is love does not mean His love must be for everything/everyone (IMO) which most people assume is the meaning of GOD IS LOVE. GOD IS LOVE fits nicely into their presuppositions.
If he did not love his image, and loathe what is against his image, he would loathe himself, he would be an enemy to his own nature. Nay, if it were possible for him to love it, it were possible for him not to be holy, it were possible then for him to deny himself, and will that he were no God, which is a palpable contradiction. Stephen Charnock A holy and righteous God cannot love (favor) that which is unjust/unrighteous.


Interesting conversation .. thx
 

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