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Cyberjosh
Your original statement:
Originally Posted by Former Christian
Christianity “the religion based on the person and teachings of Jesus of Nazareth, or its beliefs and practices.” (Oxford Dictionary) “A monotheistic system of beliefs and practices based on the Old Testament and the teachings of Jesus as embodied in the New Testament and emphasizing the role of Jesus as savior; The collective body of Christians throughout the world and history (found predominantly in Europe and the Americas and Australia)”. (WordWeb)
That seems to about cover it. I agree with the definitions of both dictionaries. You’re the one who would redefine Christianity to suit your own meaning, as one who is “accurately representing” Christianity.
You are relying on a modern English dictionary to tell you the meaning of a first century Greek word that is used in inspired Scripture? I don't care what the modern perception of 'Christian' is, I care how it was used originally. Equally I don't care what people think the ekklesia is today (some would say a location that has pews in it), but rather I care what Scripture said about what it is, when it was written 2,000 years ago. Time shouldn't change the truths of scripture, although our perceptions may be molded by our upbringing and the time we were born into.
That much I at least ask for a plea of reasonableness on.
1 Christianity
This was originally posted to Bodine as I remember.
You say you don’t agree with the modern dictionary definition of Christianity. And you say that a modern English dictionary doesn’t accurately define the meaning of a first century Greek word used in inspired Scripture.
Christianity isn’t a first century Greek word. Christian is. The term Christianity is derived from the term Christian. The Oxford Dictionary defines a Christian in this way,
“Of, relating to, or professing Christianity or its teachings” and “a person who has received Christian baptism or is a believer in Jesus Christ and his teachings”.
The only definition of the Greek word Christianos that I’ve heard of is that it means a follower of the Christ. You can see that the word Christian has come to include more in it’s definition than was in the original Greek word. So I agree with you that the modern Dictionaries aren’t defining the original Greek word. Only what it has historically come to mean through Christianity. Nevertheless, today, in the 21st century, the dictionary meanings of Christian and Christianity is what they mean to the average Christian and non-Christian. Add to that the uniquely “Christian” meaning that these terms are referring to, as the expression of the Body of Christ on earth, and that some claim that their own denomination, or that Christianity as a whole, is that expression today.
The term Christian was originally used by those who didn’t believe that Jesus of Nazareth was the Christ to denote those who did believe that Jesus of Nazareth was the Christ. It was not, I repeat NOT, used in Scripture by those who believed that Jesus was the Christ to refer to themselves. That is clear from the context apart from the interpretive thinking.
The term Christian is only used three times in the NT. And in none of those instances was it used by anyone saying “I am a Christian” or “we are Christians”, or even “you are Christians”. That doesn’t stop Christians from interpreting these references as though they did say that. Biblical interpretation is a common practice in Christianity. The use of the term Christian by those who believed that Jesus of Nazareth is the Christ to refer to themselves was not until the third century. At least that’s the earliest reference I’ve heard of. If you know of an earlier extra-biblical reference, please let me know.
Since you disagree with the Dictionary definition of Christianity, and apparently of Christian as well, what is your personal definition of these terms?
2 Ekklesia
You don’t care what people think the ekklesia is today. You only care about what the Scripture says about the ekklesia. In the view I present, the NT says that the ekklesia are local expressions only. That the only name associated with each ekklesia was the name of the city in which they existed. That they were composed of people called out of cities by God to be an expression of His Son Jesus Christ in those cities.
The Churches of Christianity and the ekklesia of the NT are not the same thing. For one thing, the Churches of Christianity are each universal expressions with local churches in the cities named for the Church of which they are a part. The ekklesia are only local expressions. For another, the Churches of Christianity are denominational, each with authoritative human leaderships. The ekklesia had only one leader, the Lord Jesus Christ, and no other Lords. Including Lords that are human and Vicars, that is representatives, of the one Lord Jesus Christ, who is already present through the Holy Spirit. Nor are the ekklesia something that no longer exists because the Churches of Christianity, specifically one of the Churches of Christianity, is the historical development of what the ekklesia was; as Roman Catholicism claims.
What does Scripture say to you regarding the ekklesia? What are their relationships to the Churches in Christianity? Does the Scripture say to you that the ekklesia were simple organizations to be replaced by the more developed Churches of Christianity?
3 “Time shouldn't change the truths of scripture, although our perceptions may be molded by our upbringing and the time we were born into.”
How can I disagree with that, since it’s what I’ve been saying all along? Yet Christianity is made up of a myriad of denominations and individuals that say the truth of Scripture has indeed changed through the diversity of their interpretations of that same Scripture.
In the view I present, Scripture is not just a historical document, to be understood through any kind of man-made method of biblical interpretation. The Scripture is always a document that exists in the present tense to whomever is reading it, in whatever era, with Jesus Christ through the Holy Spirit.
If – IF - the bible is just a collection of a bunch of writings written 2000+ years ago, then they should indeed be treated according to what they obviously are. Not as inspired Scripture, but as the writings of men who lived 2000+ years ago. And if just the writings of men, then interpreted to have meaning for 21st century readers. Because 21st century readers are trying to apply to themselves writings that weren’t even written to them in the first place. They were written to the ones the writers were originally writing to. Why should one believe in that kind of bible when there are so many writings written by 21st century writers that are more appropriate and have more real meaning for 21st century readers?
Let me be clear. In the view I present, the bible is NOT a cultural bible. It’s NOT a historical bible. It is inspired Scripture. What it says, it says clearly to anyone who really wants to know what it says. One doesn’t have to have a special degree and do special research to discover the “hidden” meanings of the bible. God didn’t write the bible to a select few. It was written to the same people Jesus preached to. Everyone who’ll hear what the Spirit, and consequently Jesus (Heb 1:2), is saying to the ekklesia. Jesus didn’t stop speaking in the first century. He continues to speak throughout two millennia through the Holy Spirit using the bible as a tool.
The only job of the translator of the Hebrew and Greek, is to accurately translate these writings into the language intended. Not to interpretively translate them; whether the intention is to make the bible more clear, or whether the intention is to convey their own understanding of what the writers wrote.
If the bible is truly inspired, then he wrote it to say the same thing to all who believe no matter what era they live in. And he wrote it clearly. With words that have obvious meanings that are the same to all. Or did God die in the first century? Or is his knowledge limited to only up to the first century? Bible interpreters change the meaning of the bible to conform to their own understanding of what the writers meant. And if interpretation is the only legitimate way to understand the bible, or if as some claim that everyone interprets the bible whether they want to or not, then the bible isn’t inspired Scripture any more than the writings of Aristotle.
That much I at least ask for a plea of reasonableness on.
Christians tend to be interpretive more than they are reasonable. And I at one time wondered if maybe it’s the will of God, like the Calvinists think. It sure makes it easier for non-Christians to refute them. In the view I present, the practice of biblical interpretation is just a human practice that leads to unreasonable views. Certainly views that have nothing at all to do with the Scripture they are interpreting. A human practice expressing the nature of Christianity, not the nature of the Scriptures.
Does that help to alleviate the vagueness problem for you?
FC