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For the purpose of this thread, fundamentalist = literalist (interpretation of scripture).
OK, folks, you knew this was coming. Another famous Biblical contradiction is 1 Samuel 17:50-51.
50 So David prevailed over the Philistine with a sling and with a stone, and smote the Philistine, and slew him; but there was no sword in the hand of David.
51 Therefore David ran, and stood upon the Philistine, and took his sword, and drew it out of the sheath thereof, and slew him, and cut off his head therewith. And when the Philistines saw their champion was dead, they fled.
So how could David have slain Goliath twice? Is there a fundamentalist explananation for this contradiction?
My personal answer is that it doesn't matter that there's inconsistencies in the Bible. The main messages of the Bible are still intact, for example salvation through the sacrifice of Jesus Christ, and in the end that's all that matters.
Good morning, everyone.
My point in pointing out these admittedly minor discrepancies is simply to explain why I do not subscribe to a fundamentalist (100% literalist) interpretation of the Bible. I feel you must work a bit harder to understand the essential truths contained in scripture, and that's really a good thing. The vast majority of the Bible is true; it's our life work to figure out what it is.
Does someone who isn't a fundamentalist Christian, but still a Christian, belong on a site like this?
I going to still have to disagree. The word "slew" means "killed". It does not say David smote Goliath, then killed him (with his own sword, which was never an issue). That may be what happened, but that is not what's written. It says that David killed Goliath, then ran up to him and killed him.Then by that definition I am not a fundamentalist. However, I don't believe literalistic interpretation is a Christian fundamental.
The above passage is not a contradiction. It simply states that David smote Goliath, and then killed him. The reader would naturally ask themselves 'How could David kill Goliath without a sword?' The passage goes on to explain that David killed Goliath with Goliath's own sword.
Any perceived contradictions or inconsistencies in the bible can be resolved if you do your part in the act of communication to try to understand what God is saying.
No, I'm not "bothered", by either being a non-fundamentalist, or by hanging out with those who are. I just want to know if my being here is a problem. If it is, I will gladly leave, no hard feelings.Does it bother you? If the community accepts you even if there are disagreements, then the community accepts you. If you accept the community even if there are disagreements then you accept the community.
Regardless what the issues are, whether it's accepting the bible as literal, the trinity as real, accepting or rejecting certain theories of science, or the changes in culture to be acceptable or an abomination. There are many issues that people can have. And people can let them divide us, as well as communities keep out those who disagree. This is true regardless of the kind of issue, as long as it's important enough to some one, or important enough for the community.
So I want to reverse the question. Does it bother you if this forum has a decent population in it that hold the bible literally?
As for me, I'm use to different beliefs, perspectives, and rationelle talking to one another. One more in my opinion would be fine. Chances are the differences will help us understand one another and possibly understand more about the world, or about truth as best that we can discern it. What matters to me though is not the differences, but the squabbles. If a person only wants to fight, I'll lose a notch or two of respect for that person.
Either way, if your asking for a vote to be welcome in this website, this is my vote. A member does not have to be literal in accepting the bible, even if I strive to do so. Please do me a favor and answer the reverse question. Would it be a problem for you to accept being here, if a portion of the conversations is likely to have someone in them accepting the bible as literally as they know how to?
I going to still have to disagree. The word "slew" means "killed". It does not say David smote Goliath, then killed him (with his own sword, which was never an issue). That may be what happened, but that is not what's written. It says that David killed Goliath, then ran up to him and killed him.
But it does actually say that:You are choosing to interpret the situation as if Goliath died from the stone, but it doesn't actually say that.
So David prevailed over the Philistine with a sling and with a stone, and smote the Philistine, and slew him
But it does actually say that:
That interpretation isn't possible. In verse 50, David does not yet possess a (Goliath's own) sword. It clearly says that ("but there was no sword in the hand of David"). It says that Goliath has been slain, yet David does not pick up a sword until verse 51, where he is slain a second time.That is something you have inferred. One can just as easily infer that he was only smitten by the stone, then he was slain. Verse 51 explains how he was slain.
That interpretation isn't possible. In verse 50, David does not yet possess a (Goliath's own) sword. It clearly says that ("but there was no sword in the hand of David"). It says that Goliath has been slain, yet David does not pick up a sword until verse 51, where he is slain a second time.
Reviewing the sequence:
- David deploys his sling, scoring a direct hit on Goliath's forehead.
- Goliath is now slain, i.e. dead. At this point it specifically says David does not yet possess a sword, therefore Goliath was killed by the stone projectile.
- David runs up to the fallen giant.
- David takes Goliath's own sword, and decapitates him.
- Goliath is now slain again, the second time today.
David killed G with one shot, then walked up to him and cut off his head. G died once, the fact that David killed G was repeated, but I've never read the passage to mean that he killed G twice, but that the repeating of the statement simply was a product of translation and a desire on the writer to emphasize that little David killed the Giant.This is not a personal inference. This is a well-known Biblical contradiction. I did not make it up myself. Google it; a lot will come up.
Well, I'd like to answer your 115 anyway. I actually wanted to interpret the passages that way. But try as I could, that scripture does in fact delineate a person being killed twice. It can not be taken as some kind of internal cross-reference to itself, if that makes sense. Acc. to the Bible, Goliath died twice.Change my answer to post 114's point, thanks.
I understand the larger context of the story of David and Goliath (if that's what some of the last few posts are referring to; I can only guess based on what information has been provided thus far). Yes, it is not merely a contest between unlikely combatants with an unexpected ending. It is a confirmation of God's commitment to protect the Israelites from her enemies, as formidable as they may appear.
That's not the point I'm making. My point is that even a single, small, and insignificant discrepancy in a written work by definition disqualifies it from being literally perfect. That does not mean the entire Bible is wrong; I believe that most of it is accurate, in fact the vast majority of the work. The Bible is a vehicle for the transmission of God's word, but it is a man-made vehicle and therefore subject to human error. There is no need to toss the baby with the bathwater, as it were. I hope no-one thinks that way.