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Reread the passages from my post #70. I even underlined the twice-used phrase "and slew him".
Reread the passages from my post #70. I even underlined the twice-used phrase "and slew him".
This is not a personal inference. This is a well-known Biblical contradiction. I did not make it up myself. Google it; a lot will come up.I would say you have a personal inference to read it that way and nothing more. It can just as easily be read that David slew G, and cut off his head, in that order. The second statement can certain point to the first "slew."
If someone really wanted to emphasize your angle, we could just as easily say that drawing the sword from the sheaf is what "slew" G.
51 Therefore David ran, and stood upon the Philistine, and took his sword, and drew it out of the sheath thereof, and slew him,
AH, semantics. So what? Now you're a member of the immoral minority? And many of the first shall be made last, and many of the last shall be made first. What a crazy race we run.
I'm not surprised that a lot of people waste their time over such matters and base their utter lack of understandings on what they think they see, as if scripture is a hard math formula and they get to do a contrived "gotcha!" with scripture and or God's Word.This is not a personal inference. This is a well-known Biblical contradiction. I did not make it up myself. Google it; a lot will come up.
Yes, it is a real group in the minds of those who believe they are the moral majority. You don't get a membership card. To be a member you have to not have a membership card of the moral majority.The immoral minority?
Is that a real group?
If I join do I get a membership card?
No offense intended Kevin, but to me this is more like poor articulation rather than a contradiction.This is not a personal inference. This is a well-known Biblical contradiction. I did not make it up myself. Google it; a lot will come up.
Transliterations have issues. Languages aren't meant to blend perfectly, and won't. The Hebrew language in use today had to be reconstructed. It may or may not be perfectly identical to original manuscripts, nor do I think it's all that important to the concepts presented in any cases of languages. The O.T. should be understood through the Words of Jesus in any case and He "probably" spoke whatever version of Hebrew was in vogue at the time, and probably had a Perfect Handle on "how" it was spoken and delivered prior. He also "probably" spoke Aramaic. (and whatever other language there might be in the universe, if there was needs to do so, which there wasn't, that we can tell.)No offense intended Kevin, but to me this is more like poor articulation rather than a contradiction.
I think you mean translations have issues.Transliterations have issues.
I think you mean translations have issues.
Kevin's earlier point is very clear though: 1 Sam. 17 has Goliath being killed twice, once by a stone in verse 50 and a second time in verse 51. Not that it is a big issue.
Good morning, everyone.
My point in pointing out these admittedly minor discrepancies is simply to explain why I do not subscribe to a fundamentalist (100% literalist) interpretation of the Bible. I feel you must work a bit harder to understand the essential truths contained in scripture, and that's really a good thing. The vast majority of the Bible is true; it's our life work to figure out what it is.
This is OK.
This is not OK. It is an ad hominem argument, addressing the speaker rather than the issue. Mods?
I think what you meant is "translations," which is translating from one language to another. To transliterate is to change the characters of a word into the corresponding characters of a different language:No, I meant "transliterations" meaning trying to directly translate from one language to another, as opposed to "paraphrasing" meaning generally translating by the "ideas" trying to be conveyed. Both have issues, the latter having many more issues.