First let me say that I am a Christian, I do believe in God, I read scripture every day, and I am not trying to start a fight. What I do, I do in the name of exploration of scripture, gaining knowledge and understanding, and often times assuming the role of devil's advocate in order for people to consider an alternate view. It is in that capacity that I continue.
Now, do you want a translation error or are you looking for a contradictory error from God/Jesus? Allow me to give both.
Translation errors are easy and numerous. Just compare the KJV to the NASB and you'll see what I mean (www.biblegateway.com for fast comparisons). In particular check out Isaiah 14:12 and pay attention to which MAJOR word has been omitted.
As for the other...
My source will be the NASB:
Genesis 32:30 - So Jacob named the place [a]Peniel, for he said, “I have seen God face to face, yet my life has been preserved.”
John 1:18 - No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him.
Which is it? Has God been seen or not? Contradiction and error.
2 Samuel 6:23 - Michal the daughter of Saul had no child to the day of her death.
2 Samuel 21:8 - So the king took the two sons of Rizpah the daughter of Aiah, Armoni and Mephibosheth whom she had borne to Saul, and the five sons of [a]Michal the daughter of Saul, whom she had borne to Adriel the son of Barzillai the Meholathite.
Footnote [a] the name Michal in this verse has been changed to Merab in modern revisions, because scholars discovered the discrepancy and worked to correct the error.
Matthew 1:16 - Jacob was the father of Joseph the husband of Mary, by whom Jesus was born, who is called [a]the Messiah.
Matthew 3:23 - When He began His ministry, Jesus Himself was about thirty years of age, being, as was supposed, the son of Joseph, the son of Eli [a]
Footnote [a] the name Eli is also written as Heli.
So who exactly was Joseph's father? Was it Eli or Jacob?
The list goes on. To think that a book as large as the Bible is error free, even though it was written by human beings, is pure drivel.
There are no such things as "translation errors". Supposing some translator used a word in Spanish, etc for a word in an english Bible. Woud that be a so-called error? Of course not! That is plain and simple.
They are variants of the original words and phrases that are used.
Please try again, and confine your "examples" to the autographa, the real issue behind the doctrine of inerrancy.