And I indicated to you that you don't seem to understand what "legalism" is - that, or our definitions of the term differ widely.
I don't believe this at all. Liberal "theologians" may be eager to cast doubt on the authorship of the Pauline epistles, as they are eager to do with all of the Bible, diminishing the supernatural nature of God's word in so doing, but I think their contentions are weak and spurious.
"Genuineness.—The ancient Church never doubted of their being canonical and written by Paul. They are in the Peschito Syriac version of the second century. Muratori's Fragment on the Canon of Scripture, at the close of the second century, acknowledges them as such. Irenæus [Against Heresies, 1; 3.3.3; 4.16.3; 2.14.8; 3.11.1; 1.16.3], quotes 1Ti 1:4, 9; 1Ti 6:20; 2Ti 4:9-11; Titus 3:10. Clement of Alexandria [Miscellanies, 2, p. 457; 3, pp. 534, 536; 1, p. 350], quotes 1Ti 6:1, 20; Second Timothy, as to deaconesses; Titus 1:12. Tertullian [The Prescription against Heretics, 25; 6], quotes 1Ti 6:20; 2Ti 1:14; 1Ti 1:18; 1Ti 6:13, &c. 2Ti 2:2; Titus 3:10, 11. Eusebius includes the three in the "universally acknowledged" Scriptures. Also Theophilus of Antioch [To Autolychus, 3.14], quotes 1Ti 2:1, 2; Titus 3:1, and Caius (in Eusebius [Ecclesiastical History, 6.20]) recognizes their authenticity. Clement of Rome, in the end of the first century, in his first Epistle to the Corinthians [29], quotes 1Ti 2:8. Ignatius, in the beginning of the second century, in Epistle to Polycarp, [6], alludes to 2Ti 2:4. Polycarp, in the beginning of the second century [Epistle to the Philippians, 4], alludes to 2Ti 2:4; and in the ninth chapter to 2Ti 4:10. Hegisippus, in the end of the second century, in Eusebius [Ecclesiastical History, 3.32], alludes to 1Ti 6:3, 20. Athenagoras, in the end of the second century, alludes to 1Ti 6:16. Justin Martyr, in the middle of the second century [Dialogue with Trypho, 47], alludes to Titus 3:4. The Gnostic Marcion alone rejected these Epistles."
A Commentary: Critical, Experimental, and Practical on the Old and New Testaments - Jamieson, Fawcett and Brown.
I disagree and have already posted as to why in this thread. Feel free to go back to my first post in this thread and read what I wrote.
As I already pointed out, God's word does not allow for
domination of men over women (
1 Peter 5:1-3; Galatians 5:13; Romans 12:5; Galatians 3:28, etc.), though it does prohibit women from fulfilling a role God has reserved for men (ie. the office of Pastor/Elder). How this prohibition equates to domination - especially in light of the passages cited - I have no idea.
Islam is a false, anachronistic religion. Is it any surprise, then, that women are oppressed by it? No reasonable interpretation of the New Testament could ever arrive at the same oppressive treatment of them. But, again, this does not mean God has not established certain gender-specific roles. He has.