Butch5
Member
Ok Butch. I still don't see why what Jesus was at the Cross and after resurrection must reflect on what He is now. The refutation for the Gnostics was that Jesus walked in the flesh, died and rose again in the flesh which is what happened. I don't see why His bodily condition after ascention reflects on this because we know He came from a Spirit condition pre incarnate to a flesh position. I think the Gnostic argument was refuted by what Jesus did here on Earth not after He ascended. imo
Hi Agua,
I don't think I'm getting my point across. I think the consensus among Scholars is that John wrote his writings towards the end of the century. For discussion let's say John wrote his epistle in AD 90. Jesus was crucified around AD. 30-33. If we say it was AD 33 then John wrote 57 years after Jesus ascended to the Father. Since John used the perfect tense in 1 John 4:2 he's saying that 57 years after Jesus ascended to the Heaven He is still in the flesh. If Jesus was in Heaven in the flesh for 57 years I don't see any reason to assume that He changed form after John wrote his epistle. I know you had questions about how a flesh body can live in Heaven, I don't know. However, looking at what John said, and what Chessman posted from Paul it seems that it can be done.
The thing is Butch I see that Jesus did everything that was required for reconciling man to God while he was a man. Whatever form He has now doesn't change that in the same way that the form He had pre incarnation doesn't change it. I just read some of Chessman's points and this one certainly has stuick with me.
According to Scripture when one is baptized they are forgiven of their former sins, Peter says,
9 But he that lacketh these things is blind, and cannot see afar off, and hath forgotten that he was purged from his old sins. (2Pe 1:9 KJV)
According to John, current and future sins are forgiven when they are confessed.
9 If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness. (1Jo 1:9 KJV)
As Chessman pointed out Paul said,
5 For there is one God and one Mediator between God and men, the Man Christ Jesus,
6 who gave Himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due time, (1Ti 2:5-6 NKJ)
When Paul wrote this Jesus had been in Heaven about 30 years.
If we must confess our sins for them to be forgiven don't we still need that mediator between God and man. Paul said our mediator is "the man" Jesus Christ.
I
'm still not convinced because the reconciliation took place fully while Jesus was a man and His sacrifice is all encompassing from that day forward. ie. all mediation has been accomplished as Calvary. I'm looking at this more closely because I must admit the argument is getting stronger for your position in my mind.
Reconciliation may have taken place, but, what about the promise to David that one from the fruit of his loins would reign on his throne to the ages? To be of the fruit of David's loins Jesus has to e flesh.
The reason I ask is because if we suggest Jesus is currently in his resurrected Body then we must also assume He eats etc atm ?
You're question is valid, however, I don't know the answer or even if we're given the answer.