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Development of Doctrine

The Catholic church in the sixteenth century affirmed that Scripture needed supplementation with various rituals and beliefs not be found in Scripture. End of story!!!
 
Since you are unable to think on your own, ask your priest to explain this (and everything else in Christendom). Or you could just ban me again (your usual tactic) because the truth is so painful for you.

No. You provide the proof for your claims
 
Here is an explanation (excerpted from an article by Michael Patton)...

The Reformers believed that Scripture alone was the only infallible source for revelation and, therefore, the Scripture alone was the primary source available for instruction on all matters of faith and practice. They believed that tradition, while valuable, could be misleading and fallible. In short, they rejected the idea that the Church needed a second infallible source of revelation (Tradition) along with an infallible interpreter (Magisterium) that would tell them what to believe. The Scriptures needed to be in the hands of every man so that every man could wrestle with and build a theology that was truly their own. (https://bible.org/article/danger-sola-scriptura)

If you can't understand that or worse, can't deal with it, that is not my problem.

.................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................


Michael Patton is the director and teacher of The Theology Program (TTP). He holds a Th.M. from Dallas Theological Seminary and an ordination from Stonebriar Community Church. TTP Instructors are Michael Patton, Th.M. and Rhome Dyck, Th.M. The Theology Program is copyrighted and published by Reclaim

Obviously his credentials are far more impressive than being the self-appointed moderator of a Catholic sub-forum.

The Reformers may have believed that "Scripture alone was the only infallible source for revelation" but on what basis did they make that claim?
I see no evidence for it.
 
The Reformers may have believed that "Scripture alone was the only infallible source for revelation" but on what basis did they make that claim?
I see no evidence for it.
Your last sentence says it all! You see no evidence for it. I feel very sorry for you. Jesus healed blind people; why not pray that He opens your spiritual eyes?
 
So you invent your own doctrine based on your personal interpretation of the Bible you agree with and using the false doctrine of Sola Scriptura (at least the Scriptura you agree with).
The Bible stands. Church doctrine is another matter altogether.
.
 
I have better things to do, one of which is reading the Bible.
Go, then, and read these:

Tit 3:2 to speak evil of no one, to avoid quarreling, to be gentle, and to show perfect courtesy toward all people.

1Pe 3:15 but in your hearts honor Christ the Lord as holy, always being prepared to make a defense to anyone who asks you for a reason for the hope that is in you; yet do it with gentleness and respect,
 
Your last sentence says it all! You see no evidence for it. I feel very sorry for you. Jesus healed blind people; why not pray that He opens your spiritual eyes?
I see no evidence for it because you have presented none.
You make a claim - you prove it.
 
Go, then, and read these:

Tit 3:2 to speak evil of no one, to avoid quarreling, to be gentle, and to show perfect courtesy toward all people.

1Pe 3:15 but in your hearts honor Christ the Lord as holy, always being prepared to make a defense to anyone who asks you for a reason for the hope that is in you; yet do it with gentleness and respect,
I read the Bible in context, not verses from different authors, selected specifically to prove a point..
 
I see no evidence for it because you have presented none.
You make a claim - you prove it.
You're joking, right? I have no interest in wasting my time trying to prove anything to you. Since your mind is closed, it is an impossible task!
 
jaybo
Walpole asked you for information.
So far you have not provided it.
Please post the verse which states the Bible, along with the books which should comprise said Bible, is the sole infallible source of authority for Christian faith and practice.

Otherwise you realize you would be failing and contradicting your own rule, right?
 
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