Did he actually say he would write all of them or for that matter, the same laws in every heart? I would assume so but maybe we need to prove that?
For all I know, all he has written in my heart is in my heart and you are the one that chooses to add others so you see, by that and what we have already argued, we are just going to keep going in circles here. You have not proved your point to me and I have not proved mine to you still
Don't you see what you are doing there? that is YOU choosing what he has put in my mind, not God.
How can the very thing that tells us we are sinning be abolished?
Because the commandments tell us we are sinning? That is if you still don't understand we are sinful.
That is why we must have our minds renewed.
Again, mine is but since my hearts rules don't agree with yours, you are really saying *I* need to have my mind renewed, yours already has been....right?
That could be taken a few ways, one of which is, We establish the law through faith and no longer need the actual law to show us we sin. But lets not argue that now and move to the following
We might be getting somewhere now. Pretty convincing, at least for when it was written.
But then there is:
Matthew 5:18,
For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.
The big question there would be, has all been fulfilled? or what exactly does that mean?...Did Jesus death and resurrection fulfill it all? And if it doesn't mean that, you tell me what it means?
Jocar, concerning my last comment to you, the one quoted here or post 57, the post you just may not have had a chance to comment on as yet. It ended with a quote of Mathew 5:8 and then a request for you to explain to me what the
till all be fulfilled part of that verse means.
First let me say, I've been somewhat convinced the law was abolished but not completely and I suppose that is why I engaged with you here as I did, hoping to learn something, anything on this issue as this is one thing that has been nagging at me for a long time, an awful long time, as no one really gave me anything solid to go on either way, that or I just missed it or the explanations never meshed for me.
Anyway, I got curios and checked out some commentaries on the part of the verse I had asked your input on and fortunately, that very verse that happen to come to mind when you mentioned a couple of verses during our conversation, may be just what I was looking for, as it seems from the commentaries as well as my first impression on the part of that verse that I never recalled seeing before, the
till all be fulfilled part. Seems it means just what I thought it did and that verse along with the commentaries may have finally wrapped this whole thing up for me. Or at the very least, closer than any verse ever has before. It may be that solid evidence I was looking for.
till all be fulfilled may well mean Jesus's death and resurrection. The price has been paid..... and you mentioned we need the law to show us what sin is, in reality the law is no longer necessary to show us that, use your common sense and think about it and forget the law for just one moment here, do you really need that to show you what sin is? Just watch and listen to some of your trusted good people here but don't use your obeying of the law as a criteria for being good, again, just for a moment and you will see, most of the sincere people here who don't do the law, know exactly what sin is. you can easily tell by reading their posts.
The ultimate price was paid for that sin and it drove home the point we were sinful, as the law showed us, sin needed paying for when we broke the law, as the laws system showed us and now, not only has it all been payed for but in such a way, how can we possibly
not know what sin is? It was paid for with a very high price to the Father/Christ, not us so, all that in mind, it seems to me, to continue with the law now, it rejects all that was done for us, rejects a really good deal God gave us if we just accept it, and all considered, a deal at very little cost to us.
In my view, all has been fulfilled and I'm sure that's common knowledge for most and was to me to a point but, I'm just now having it proved, at least till someone comes along and confuses me, lol, but na, I'll hold tight to this proof, look into it a bit more, and see how it goes.
That said, and this is certainly not a demand, but I would now, more than ever, welcome your comment on Matthew 5:18, and mainly the last part. Please prove what I learned from it is wrong, prove the "fulfillment" is not what Jesus did on the cross and help me reach my goal of knowing the truth, if you would.
The commentaries were here, if interested, Jocar. I wasn't sure I could copy them here so I'll hope I can include a link.
http://biblehub.com/commentaries/matthew/5-18.htm