Romans 9
vic C. said:
Aah, this brings me back to the question I asked concerning Romans 9:21-23. Paul's decree; "where did he get this from?" was the question I asked that no one answered. To me, it's a misinterpretation of what Paul is trying to convey and it's a horrible, horrible decree. God does have the ability to reshape the very same marred vessel. It doesn't have to stay marred. Jeremiah 18:4-6 proves this.
Vic C.
Concerning your issue on Romans 9:21-23, I do not recall seeing what you previously wrote.
Concerning Jeremiah 18; it is a different context from romans 9. The two contexts have the words pot and potter in them but they are two very different contexts.
In Jeremiah, the prophet goes and observes a potter, and then an analogy is made concerning the pots. As Jeremiah watches this potter, the potter has an accident. There is a slip of the hand and he ruins the pot. However, the potter still makes something useful out of the pot. Jeremiah takes this reshaping as an analogy for what God will do with Israel. Israel is a ruined pot that God will remake into something useful. There is no reshaping of the pot in Romans 9. In Romans 9 God is the Potter and he makes only 2 kinds of pots. Some pots are made to be fit for destruction, and some are made for Gods mercy. There is no reshaping of a ruined pot in Romans 9, but the potter takes each vessel directly from the same lump of clay.
God does have the ability to reshape the very same marred vessel. It doesn't have to stay marred. Jeremiah 18:4-6 proves this
Vic, of course I would never deny Gods ability. God can reshape any pot he pleases. Yet there is no reshaping of pots in Romans 9. There is only the intentional shaping of a pot fitted for destruction in Romans 9.
Just look at the context of romans 9 a little. Why do you think Paul asks the question....
14 What shall we say then? Is there unrighteousness with God? God forbid.
You are defending this by saying God would be unrighteous if he made a pot fitted for destruction. Your question is the very question asked in verse 14. Is God unrighteous if he makes pots fitted for destruction.
First, Paul quotes the OT as his support in verse 15.
15 For he saith to Moses, I will have mercy on whom I have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I have compassion.
The point of this OT quote is explained in verse 16. Pauls says this OT reference means this......
16 So then it is not of him that willeth, nor of him that runneth, but of God that hath mercy. So then God can show mercy, or he can choose not to show mercy. The decision of Gods mercy is not up to man ("it is not of him that willeth, nor of him that runneth") but the decision is up to God (God that shows mercy).
In verses 17-18 Paul will show the flip side of this coin. What happens if God refuses to show mercy? What happens if he chooses to harden someone. He begins with another OT quote
17 For the scripture saith unto Pharaoh,
For this very purpose did I raise thee up, that I might show in thee my power, and that my name might be published abroad in all the earth.
Paul then also explains this OT quote by saying.....
18 So then he hath mercy on whom he will, and whom he will be hardeneth.
The point is that God can not only choose to show mercy, he can choose to harden. The typical argument against this is that Pharaoh was already hardened. I agree, but the point is why then did God raise him up to power? God raised him up to power to harden him. God could have chosen to make sure Pharaoh was a powerless popper all his life. God gave Pharaohs heart the all it needed to harden, and this was by giving him power. I agree that God did not wave some magic wand to make Pharaohs heart hard, he did not need to do this because all men are in rebellion and sinful. What God did, was to raise him up. By doing this, Pharaoh became the pot fitted for destruction.
You and the Pharaoh can say as the hypothetical person in verse 19...
19 Thou wilt say then unto me, Why doth he still find fault? For who withstandeth his will? You both can say, if God hardened Pharoah's heart, then why can God find fault. Does this not make God evil? You both think this hardening process in which God makes pots fitted for destruction implies that God is evil. Paul replies to both you and the hypothetical mans and your arguments in verse 20.
20 Nay but, O man, who art thou that repliest against God? Shall the thing formed say to him that formed it, Why didst thou make me thus?
Vic, your complaint is the same identical complaint that Pauls hypothetical man is making. You both are saying that it is not right for God to harden hearts and make a pot fitted for destruction. Pauls answer to this complaint is found in verse 20. In essence, who are you to reply against God.... Shall the pot fitted to destruction say to God who formed it... "Why did you make me thus." The essence of your theology is you are denying that God would "make me thus." You are agreeing with Pauls hypothetical objecter in the context. You are saying God does not have the right to make pots fitted for destruction. Paul is not agreeing with you, read the next verse.
21 Or hath not the potter a right over the clay, from the same lump to make one part a vessel unto honor, and another unto dishonor?
Rather then agree with you that God does not have the right to make pots fitted for destruction, exactly the opposite occurs here. Paul is affirming Gods right to make pots fitted for destruction. He is defending against people exactly like you who deny God has the sovereign right to make the pot as he chooses. The claim in verse 21 is that God has the right to make pots for honor, but he also has the right to make pots for destruction. You deny exactly what Paul is affirming.
Vic, in this entire analogy in Romans, it is not the pot that makes all the decisions. Who has the free will, the pot, or the potter? If the pot has free will to choose what kind of vessel it will be, then the potter has an impotent lack of free will. Vic, do you believe in a potter that cannot make decisions? I absolutely believe in free will, but I believe in the free will of the potter, God. Is not your position that God cannot make a pot fitted for destruction an assault on the free will of God?
In any case, any hermeneutic that imports an analogy from Jeremiah 18 and changes the analogy in Romans 9 to make it fit some other passage is a mistaken hermeneutic. As long as something is similar about a parable or analogy can I import the theology into a separate context? Well, I wanted to go through romans 9, and I did.
The end.