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How do later Gentile views of "the Word" in John 1 differ from the original Jewish-Christian understanding, and what are the theological implications?

No opinion just scripture and the truth it teaches us.
And the Angel of the LORD appeared to him in a flame of fire from the midst of a bush. So he looked, and behold, the bush was burning with fire, but the bush was not consumed. Exodus 3:2
Who was Moses looking at?
Moses was looking at an angel sent from God.
Moreover He said, “I am the God of your father—the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob.” And Moses hid his face, for he was afraid to look upon God. Exodus 3:2
That is not Exodus 3:2.
The scripture plainly says Moses was afraid to look upon God.
Find the right scripture.
The scripture plainly says the same thing in Judges -
Then Manoah said to the Angel of the LORD, “What is Your name, that when Your words come to pass we may honor You?”
And the Angel of the LORD said to him, “Why do you ask My name, seeing it is wonderful?”
So Manoah took the young goat with the grain offering, and offered it upon the rock to the LORD. And He did a wondrous thing while Manoah and his wife looked on— it happened as the flame went up toward heaven from the altar—the Angel of the LORD ascended in the flame of the altar! When Manoah and his wife saw this, they fell on their faces to the ground. When the Angel of the LORD appeared no more to Manoah and his wife, then Manoah knew that He was the Angel of the LORD.
And Manoah said to his wife, “We shall surely die, because we have seen God!” Judges 13:17-22.
If the angel was God, why didn't Manoah die ?
Manoah and wife were mistaken.
 
Our opinions differ.
Yes, and I've used Scripture to back my position, which you have not addressed. I'm quite certain that my position has the near full support of historic, orthodox Christianity as well.

You don't seem to think it strange--or perhaps you do which is why you haven't addressed the issue--that only John uses Logos to speak of the Son's eternal preexistence; none of the writers of the NT do, nor did Jesus use it of himself. You seem to actually think the Holy Spirit inspired John to correct Jesus, but that means a lot of initial believers died believing that Jesus was in heaven as the Son prior to becoming incarnate. It seems to be a pretty important issue:

Joh 20:31 but these are written so that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that by believing you may have life in his name. (ESV)
 
If it is an "angel", it is not a manifestation of God.
Manoah and wife were mistaken.
In their amazement, they mistook an angel for God.

Why don't you just believe what is written ?
If scripture says it was a angel, why not just know that it was a angel ?

Why don't I believe what is written? You are the one twisting and turning all over the place trying to make thr Scriptures say something other than what they say.
Your first statement about angels is clearly just your own take on things.
The FACT of the matter is that all the rules of grammar dictate that in this particular case THIS Angel is called God.
All of the rules of grammar say that when the verses use tye pronoun God and say that "when God saw that Moses had turned aside..." That the pronoun "God" refers back to the pronoun "The Angel of the Lord".
Precisely nowhere does the text imply or intimate thar "God took over'. You have completely forces that onto the text.
Same with the Manoah verses. Nowhere does it state thar they were mistaken due to overzealousness. You are imposing that onto the text and you have no right or authority to do so.
 
You seem to actually think the Holy Spirit inspired John to correct Jesus, but that means a lot of initial believers died believing that Jesus was in heaven as the Son prior to becoming incarnate.
I don't believe that at all.
It was the Word that took on flesh, and was born of Mary as Jesus.
 
Why don't I believe what is written? You are the one twisting and turning all over the place trying to make thr Scriptures say something other than what they say.
Your first statement about angels is clearly just your own take on things.
The FACT of the matter is that all the rules of grammar dictate that in this particular case THIS Angel is called God.
All of the rules of grammar say that when the verses use tye pronoun God and say that "when God saw that Moses had turned aside..." That the pronoun "God" refers back to the pronoun "The Angel of the Lord".
Precisely nowhere does the text imply or intimate thar "God took over'. You have completely forces that onto the text.
Same with the Manoah verses. Nowhere does it state thar they were mistaken due to overzealousness. You are imposing that onto the text and you have no right or authority to do so.
I cannot agree.
 
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