Drew
Member
First of all, I suggest that I can indeed prove my point that perfect foreknowledge and freewill are compatible. I would rather not take the time to do so, since the argument is complex.Voyageur said:Drew said:I understand the fallacy that occurs in the argument when one considers that omniscience doesn't exactly force an individual to do anything. What I'm saying is this: the fact that God knows at all--that past, present and future are known to God simultaneously--is problematic. The Judeo-Christian tradition clearly implies that God is in perfect control of his creation (the universe); so it seems to me that if events are unfolding just as God has imagined, free will is an illusion.
Of course, I can no more prove my assertion than you can prove yours.
Second, you seem to set-up the argument in a questionable manner. While many in the Judeo-Christian tradition hold that God fully and sufficiently controls every event in the universe, anyone who holds that position would be a fool to then claim that humans have free will.
I believe in the reality of human free will. I am on the fence about omniscience. But, for the sake of the argument, I will accept omniscience. My whole point is that there is no philosophical or logical problem with believing that God fully knows the future and that man has free will.
Although I know that what I am about to say seems to cast doubt on my position, I am simply unwilling to take the time to repeat a complex argument that is already provided in gory detail in the link I posted. So while I am not willing to actually repeat the proof, I think the proof is rock-solid.