It's a good question, OP
Exegesis can vary wildly depending on who is doing it
For some Jews, there are 4 separate levels of interpretation to the Torah alone ( Pardes ), for others, both Jews, Christians, etc it is taken as a literal account that needs no further study or attempts to find " deeper meanings " ( Which many people are strictly opposed to, perhaps misunderstanding kabbalah as being the same as pardes , when pardes, unlike kabbalah, is
strictly Torah ), although
personally, I find attempts to simply the Bible for the sake of fast study is like trying to turn it into a Dr Seuss book with little to say, when in fact just a
few verses can lead to years of study
I am always sort of shocked when I encounter people who have these steadfast positions of " I have studied the Bible for X number of years , I know more than you, etc " , because I don't really get the feeling that's how it works
There is what amounts to a sort of logical proposition in the scriptures
- Jesus is the Word
- The Bible is God's Word
- Every knee will bow, and every tongue confess
Now, for naysayers and non-believers, they claim the Bible can't be " divine " because in their words:
" It was written by a bunch of nomadic goat herders " ( a favorite of naysayers )
or
" It's the most heavily edited book ever, and is just a manufactured tool of the church to control the masses "
Let's put aside the problem that
without God manifesting in the flesh, there is no objective and unarguable definition for what " divinity " actually means, ( I believe when Christ comes there will be no further confusion what divinity means, and it will not be defined subjectively )
The problem is this:
For " every knee to bow and every tongue confess " ,
all people would have to finally come to the acceptance the Bible IS divine, because we couldn't have something like
~ all tongues confess Jesus is Lord, but 27% still doubt the Bible is divine
or
~ all tongues confess Jesus is Lord, but 1/2 of them still debate exegesis
This leads me to question that if Christ were to manifest in the flesh, in front of us, would he know more about the scriptures than any person on earth ?
Would we have the time to ask questions, or would we be whisked away before ?
I would think most believers would accept that if that
were the situation, certainly Christ would have more knowledge of the scriptures in his little toe than all the worlds pastors and rabbis combined
But would they listen ?
Would they not even have the chance ?
It's all very curious, because without Jesus, there is nothing to validate the Bible to the point it's accepted as the truth to non-believers, yet the very nature of the full truth of the scriptures would only be known to Christ
Think about when people taunt Christians and say
"
Prove to me the bible is God's word "
or
"
Prove to me the Bible is divine "
...and folks are off and running with verses in hand to " prove the Bible is divine " to the non-believer ......yet, ..
...is it actually their place to prove the Bible is divine, or their place to prove the Bible is God's word ?
Even the nature of " proof " and how things are actually proven is debated
Usually the argument to my hypothetical is something like:
" Jesus won't have to prove anything to anybody, people will just know "
or
" Jesus isn't coming in the flesh ( antichrist / apostate, in my opinion )
or
" It's not your place to question "
...but to be honest, I find those to be sidestepping the issue, and that is that if it was anybody's place to " prove " the entire world the Bible is indeed divine, it's none other than Christ
...because if anybody else could do it it would have been done already
Aside from the above, I could also point out that there is a tradition of Mesopotamia that dealt with the literature pertaining to a High Priest, and that is that
only a High priest could correctly interpret ( exegesis ) the texts that pertained to
him ( Which is more or less what I layed out above
)
Everybody else was threatened with a curse, that they would curse themselves by trying to explain the texts ( Which to me sounds almost like a false prophet, but that's just my opinion )
The text would say something like ( Paraphrased ) " If you are not the High Priest,
do not attempt to interpret this ephemeris ( Table of astronomical observations ) or you will curse yourself "
And just to put this out there for thought, regarding the hypothetical that
only Christ knows the true interpretation of the scriptures:
Some say Jesus is the " star " that we find is given the key to the
pit ( some say not ), but the curious thing is this-
In Hebrew, "
pit " is : בור , ( bowr ) which is from the root word בור buwr {boor} a primitive root; - declare - t
o make clear, clear up, explain, prove , which in turn is in the sense of באר bo'r {bore} which ultimately derives from the word באר ba'ar {baw-ar'} a primitive root; - plain , plainly , declare-
to make plain, distinct, to make clear, to declare*, *letters on a tablet
In Greek, in the New Testament, however, the "
pit " is " bottomless ", αβυσσος ( abussos ) ( Abyss ) which is from a variation of : βυθος buthos {boo-thos'} - deep , the bottom or depth of the sea, which is a variation of βαθος bathos {bath'-os} depth , deepness , deep thing depth, height of the deep sea , metaphorically as deep, extreme, poverty or
of the deep things of God
Now I have gotten responses like:
" Word roots mean nothing "
" The Bible isn't a Mesopotamian book "
" There are no Mesopotamian literary traditions in the Bible "
" The Bible's only source is the Bible " ( Have to admit, I didn't grasp that one )
" Hidden knowledge is from demons, you must be in the devil's / Satan's grasp "
etc
...but I find these to sidestep the point, yet again
To be honest, I have yet to talk to another person who is even aware that the author of John 1:1
" In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God "
..was possibly making reference to a pardes of Genesis 1:1, in that
the very first letter of the Bible, in the word that is translated to " In the beginning ", is the letter " beyt ", as the word " beyt " ( or however you would like to transliterate the word ) means " house "
If you do a word / verse study on " beyt " , you'll find it's used to describe anything from a normal house to a temple
If your exegesis is that Christ IS the temple / Tabernacle, literally, then the when you examine the fact that in Hebrew you have letters that serve as definite article ( hey ) or the conjunctive ( vav ) as prefixes to words , you find " beyt " as meaning " in / on / by "
So if you consider Christ to be the House / Temple / Tabernacle of God, and that " beyt " is used to connotative of being "
in " something, then it only points to the fact that in the Tanakh,
in the Tabernacle,
in the Holy of Holies,
in the Ark , was where the Word itself dwelt
But if Christ
is the Word
and the Temple, and is indwelt by
the Holy Spirit which was said to be
in the Ark itself ( And there is a distinct difference in Judaism between the spirit and the Holy Spirit, where the Holy Spirit ( ruach hakodesh VS ruach ) really only normally indwells a prophet or someone with prophet-like status ), then it only strengthens the pardes hypothesis of John 1:1
Usually people refuse to discuss whether or not Jewish exegesis was known to John at all, which I think is rather illogical, again, my opinion, or they say something to the tune of:
" That's the most ridiculous thing I ever heard "
To which my feeling is that it's rather myopic and narrow-minded to assume that the NT authors read everything and interpreted everything ( exegesis ) like modern people tend to do, which in my opinion sells the Bible short, when in fact it is rife with knowledge that will never be gleaned with a glance, but much study
That's my two