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In Paradise When?

Hi 10s3r,

That is what many believe, however, that is not
what the Scriptures teach. That idea came into the Church from Greek philosophy.
Many Christians will turn to Luke 16 as evidence for this idea, but Jesus'
teaching is not that there is an after life, it is that the Jews would soon be
removed from the priesthood.
I don't know exactly what you mean. It doesn't help when you don't give me reasons why you believe what you believe. In other words show me "what the scriptures teach!"
Luke 16 isn't a parable to me. It happened. Jesus said, "there was a certain rich man."

There is no evidence that it actually happened. The idea that Jesus is teaching about he after life doesn't fit the context of what He is saying. The Scriptures don't teach of an afterlife in which souls/spirits are in a conscious state. If we look at the creation account we find that God formed man from the dust and breathed "His" breath/spirit into him and he be came a living soul. From this we can deduce that a living soul consists of a body made from the dust and God's breath/spirit. Solomon said that when a man dies his body returns to the dust and the spirit/breath returns to God. There is nothing else to live on. Solomon also compared the death of man to that of the animals and said they all have "one" breath/spirit. We know from the creation account that that breath/spirit belongs to God.
 
Paradise and the souls under the altar of the fifth seal.

Revelation 6:9-10 ¶And when he had opened the fifth seal, I saw under the altar the souls of them that were slain for the word of God, and for the testimony which they held: And they cried with a loud voice, saying, How long, O Lord, holy and true, dost thou not judge and avenge our blood on them that dwell on the earth?

The fifth seal, the martyred souls. One doctrine I have always questioned is the intermediate state. I can't find any scripture that say's that when we die we go directly to heaven. I have tried over and over again to see this in the light that most Christians do, and failed every time. I believe things haven't changed since Christ ascended. I have always stood by paradise as being the resting place where the dead in Christ await the resusertion.

Rev 6:9-11 And when He had opened the fifth seal, I saw under the alter the souls of them that were slain for the word of God, and for the testimony which they held: And they cried with a loud voice, saying, How long, O Lord, holy and true, dost thou not judge and avenge our blood on them that dwell on the earth? And white robes were given unto every one of them; and it was said unto them, that they should rest yet for a little season, until their fellow servants also and their bretheren, that should be killed as they were, should be fulfilled.

Christ chose to show us in the fifth seal that the martyred saints are waiting in paradise and that His vengence will soon come on those commiting these crimes. They are told to wait as paradise fills even more. Altars are symbolic of paradise in more than one instance in the bible. Why would God confine his martyrs under an altar in heaven? Paradise is waiting for the resurrection. They're anxious for an end to things and know their redeemer is coming! As you read this passage, you can sense their anticipation and are told to wait and expect an influx of more martyrs, and then the Lord will avenge their blood on them that dwell on the earth.
So according to Luke 16 which was an actual event and Rev. 6:9, we go to paradise and are conscious of it.

Remember, Revelation uses symbolism drawn from the OT. In the OT It is stated that the life is in the blood. What was on the alter, was it not blood? There is also the issue of the figure of speech to be addressed. Consider when Cain killed Abel, God said to Cain, you brother's blood cries out to me from the ground. I don't think God was saying that Abel's blood was literally crying out from the ground.

There are q few problems with understanding Luke 16 as Jesus teaching an after life. For one thing it would contradict the rest of scripture which clearly says man returns to dust. Secondly, it doesn't fit the contest. Jesus is addressing the Pharisees, why would He suddenly stop, break into a discussion about the after life and then return to His original topic? That doesn't make sense. Another problem is that it has the rich man being tormented in flames before the judgment. Why is he in torment, is it simply for being rich? What about Lazarus, all we're told is that he was a beggar, is that how one enters the kingdom by becoming a beggar? If you look at the two parables previous to this it is about the Jews being rejected as God's stewards. If we understand that this parable is likewise about the Jews being rejected it makes sense. We see the rich man, the priesthood being rejected and the beggar, Lazarus is accepted. This fits nicely with what Jesus said elsewhere.

11 And I say unto you, That many shall come from the east and west, and shall sit down with Abraham, and Isaac, and Jacob, in the kingdom of heaven.
12 But the children of the kingdom shall be cast out into outer darkness: there shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth. (Mat 8:11-12 KJV)
 
This has to do with the thief on the cross next to Jesus.

Eternity has no aspect of time. The clock has stopped. What is a minute, hour, day, month, year, century in the eternal state. Time is no more - (grabbing a coined phrase). So the approach is questionable.

The Greek text used may be in question here. The movement of the coma to behind "today" is found in one or two miniscules and and a papyrus. Is that trustworthy considering the number of text on the opposite side? I think not.
 
This has to do with the thief on the cross next to Jesus.

Eternity has no aspect of time. The clock has stopped. What is a minute, hour, day, month, year, century in the eternal state. Time is no more - (grabbing a coined phrase). So the approach is questionable.

The Greek text used may be in question here. The movement of the coma to behind "today" is found in one or two miniscules and and a papyrus. Is that trustworthy considering the number of text on the opposite side? I think not.
Where do you get this idea from? Eternal is from the Greek word aionios which is derived from the word "aion" meaning age. Aionios is strengthened form of this word that simply means enduring unto the ages, which absolutely has cognate in it's meaning, the idea of time.

God created time, and he like the rest of creation will not do away with time but will indeed be with us for all time.
 
God created time, and he like the rest of creation will not do away with time but will indeed be with us for all time.


He did so for man. But God himself is not bound by time, my friend. Jesus Christ came into time to save us. And to state something of the OT here note the highlighted second:
Ecc 3:1 To every thing there is a season, and a time to every purpose under the heaven:
Note it says that season and time happens under heaven. Then follows the words a time to be born and a time to die......
So the verses continue - a time for everything under the sun. When you die the time in this world does not apply any more. Sometimes one needs to look at the Hebrew as well. After all the Bible is a double-edged sword not a single-edged sword. And "for all time" would have to be in the static sense where one second lasts for eternity. And this is the picture given in most sermons. I'll dig up further.
 
He did so for man. But God himself is not bound by time, my friend. Jesus Christ came into time to save us. And to state something of the OT here note the highlighted second:
Ecc 3:1 To every thing there is a season, and a time to every purpose under the heaven:
Note it says that season and time happens under heaven. Then follows the words a time to be born and a time to die......
So the verses continue - a time for everything under the sun. When you die the time in this world does not apply any more. Sometimes one needs to look at the Hebrew as well. After all the Bible is a double-edged sword not a single-edged sword. And "for all time" would have to be in the static sense where one second lasts for eternity. And this is the picture given in most sermons. I'll dig up further.
What does under the heaven mean in this verse? It seems this simple misunderstanding of the Hebrew word is the reason for your confusion.

Also, I am referring to spending eternity with God in the new heavens and new earth, where the heavenly Jerusalem descends and God's place is with man again.
 
Introduction:

There is a text in Luke 23:43, where Jesus seems to be (according to the English translation) saying to the thief that he will be in "paradise" with Jesus, today, the very same day as Jesus was speaking.

Now, what I have been thinking lately is what in the Greek inspired this translation, with the adverb σήμερον (Today) either modifying the verb λέγω (I say) or ἔσῃ (will be).

I will merely be making observations from Luke's other uses of these words, and especially his quoting of Jesus using terminology like this to find out which would be a more likely rendering.

Today Modifies What?

And He began to say to them, "Today this Scripture has been fulfilled in your hearing." Luke 4:21(NASB)
...
Conclusion:

I believe that based on the stylistic patterns that we have seen from Luke's gospel and his rendering of Jesus speech, it would be highly unlikely for the adverb σήμερον to modify ἔσῃ (will be) in Luke 23:43.

The verse I believe should rather be translated thus: "and He said to him, "Truly I say to you today, you will be with me in paradise."

Now please understand, that I am not completely sold on the idea that there is no intermediate state for the righteous (I'm convinced there is none for the wicked), but I have heard this text consistently used to defend the position that we go immediately to "paradise" when we die, just like the Thief.

In my opinion, based on the observations that I have made, I find it highly improbable stylistically for the traditional translation. Rather, I believe one would have to read their own theology into the text and ignore all previous modes of interpretation and translation in order to render this passage in such a way.

While it doesn't seal the deal for me.. it certainly casts doubt.

Tell me what you think!

Blessings,
Servant of Jesus

I agree; but for a different reason; those words have at least two meanings.

A paradisio (persian for walled in garden) is the treasured place a rich man kept up, and wherein the rich man often desired to be buried. There are examples in and out of scripture (OT) of the garden being specifically chosen as a burial place for the future; eg: a paradisio being nothing more than a walled in garden of a rich man.

Considering that, realize that there are many different ways in which Jesus' words can be true.

That very day, Jesus was in a garden, in a rich man's tomb. The reason is that his body could not be carried farther on account of the sabbath.

Hence, Jesus' words do not need to mean he was in heaven that very day. Nor does it really make sense that he would be; for he still had to go "prepare a place" for his disciples to come; and also to send the Spirit who *would otherwise NEVER be poured out*.
( Unless one tries to say Jesus himself is heaven, at which point other complications arise. )

The same burial, then, is true of the theif -- his body could be carried no farther than the garden on that day (although he needn't have been laid in a freshly hewn tomb; other options exist. ). Jews commonly placed people in temporary tombs to await the rotting of flesh, before transferring the bones to a more permanent burial place; so it's not necessary to think that any mercy given to the theif was a great one, either.

But -- I think the primary emphasis of Jesus' word "sameron" (today), is the meaning of God speaking it;
eg: "If, today, you hear his voice -- harden not your heart.".

It's instructive to note that saint will differ from saint in Glory in the resurrection; and that Jesus already knew he, himself, would die before the theif; meaning that Jesus knew the theif would remain to suffer out the very last of his sentence after he was already forgiven; The theif had time to doubt ( a sin, but not unto death ). What would the theif do in that time?

God seems to delight in a promise that is not seen fulfilled immediately; For example: Abraham, to whom was given the promised land, never owned a single foot of land for the duration of his life, but only purchased a grave for when he was to die.

Abraham faced the same issue with respect to an enigmatic promise; and Abraham struggled with doubt.
When Abraham entered Egypt, he used a ruse to protect his life -- but (think about it in hindsight) there was no need for him to hide Sara's identity, for the same reason Abraham didn't need to protect Isaac from death; for the promise guaranteed he would have posterity was a trump card.

And Abraham's ruse eventually failed, and, later, Isaac's would fail even quicker... and the final irony would be Jacob demanding a blessing -- when he was already to be blessed; and receiving a strike in the hip as a reward. Is-ra-el. He who is forever wrestling with God UN-necessarily. The man who does evil to God.

I wonder how that theif recognized the nature of Jesus' kingdom so quickly while hanging on the cross.
I mean, Abraham took 14+ years of seeing, touching, and hugging the miracle of Isaac before recognizing that death (a dead womb = tomb) was not an obstacle to God. He was able to reason to the conclusion and outcome.

Gods words are true in more than one way, and always good; but not always exactly as one expects -- but in excess.
 
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