Are you intentionally overlooking what I have said out here before. The word APOSTASIA does NOT, repeat does NOT mean a departure FROM THE FAITH. The phrase "from the faith" has to be ADDED to give APOSTASIA a context. If APOSTASIA does not have a qualifying phrase it does NOT mean "from the faith" or "from Moses."Yes, consider the link I provided Mr. E above, which shows that the primary use of the word in the NT is in relation to abandoning the faith.
[quote:]
New Testament:
The term is used only one other time in the New Testament, which means a religious departure:
Septuagint:
Four Times: Joshua 22:22; 2 Chronicles 29:19; 1 Maccabees 2:15; Jeremiah 2:19.
Every time it means apostasy or rebellion in a religious or political sense—never used as a spatial or physical sense.
[unquote]
I tell you what I'll do. Why don't you show me one instance where APOSTASIA is used WITHOUT a qualifying phrase AND it means "from the faith" or "from Moses."
I know before you start looking that there is no instance of such a usage. But I want you to see it for yourself. Look up every instance of APOSTASIA and see if you can find one example in which APOSTASIA by itself means FROM THE FAITH. Best of luck in your search. I am hoping you can find one instance so I can adjust my theology accordingly.