francisdesales
Member
- Aug 10, 2006
- 7,793
- 4
Do not sidestep the topic with your useless stacks of books written by dead men, the fact remains, the Word is the only book provided to us by our only Father, there is only one of each.
Books written by dead men like Paul and Peter?
Be that as it may, the point is whether the Church, the pillar and foundation of the Truth, practiced and preached something as an Apostolic Tradition. We are told by that very Bible you believe you hold to that we are to hold onto ALL TRADITIONS, both ORALLY and in WRITTEN form. ALL of them, Rockie. Every one of them. Not excluding the ones you don't like or approve of.
Now, truly, the Bible is a wonderful source of those TRADITIONS. However, NOWHERE does the Bible state that it is the ONLY source of those APOSTOLIC TRADITIONS that we are commanded to hold to. Now, Rockie, unless you can find me a verse that states that "oral traditions are abrogated" after some date, say, the third century, then you MIGHT have something worthy of standing upon in a debate.
Unfortunately, the hypocrisy of sola scriptura blinds you to the very fact that you are disobeying the Word of God. That is truly the definition of a "tradition of men", following a man-made teaching that moves someone away from the Word.
And so, to determine whether we have an oral tradition on our hands, infant baptism, it is NECESSARY that we examine the practices of the early Church and determine whether it was indeed a practise of the Church and tied to an apostolic beginning. As my citations prove, we have just that. We have historical evidence of an Apostolic Tradition. As such, you would be wise not to be a hypocrite and tell me about "obeying the Word" when you clearly are not with your rejection of 2 Thessalonians 2:15 or 1 Cor 12:1 or 1 Cor 15:1-2 and so forth...
Where does the Bible disallow the practice of infant baptism? Where does the Bible say that ONLY ADULTS can become baptized? Where does Jesus state "keep those kids away from me"? Does not the Bible provide enough evidence for the possibility of the practice by stating "the entire family was baptized"? Doesn't Scriptures provide plentiful theological evidences of proxy faith statements, intercessionary prayers for others, etc., that does not necessitate that the one receiving the gift MUST initiate the request of healing?
Clearly, you need to read the Bible through the mind of the Church, those who wrote it. There is ample evidence in Scriptures to support God's healing coming upon a person, even if the person didn't necessarily ask for it.
Or do you propose that the dead Lazarus asked Jesus to raise him from the dead?
Or perhaps that infants asked their Jewish parents to circumcise them?
Or perhaps that Jesus Christ died for the sake of ALL men, not a one who asked Him to do so.
Sola Scriptura and reading the Bible with 21st century American individualistic mindset will not get you to understand the truth of the Bible.
Regards
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