Drew
Member
- Jan 24, 2005
- 14,249
- 81
Where does the Bible tell us that baptism should only be performed on an individual with either "understanding" or repentance. Please give specific texts from the Bible.An infant has absolutely no understanding of the gospel or of repentance toward God and faith in the Lord Jesus Christ, and an infant has no need of repentance, it's not guilty of anything before God.
Consider this: Does a vaccination help an infant? Obviously it does. Do we choose to not vaccinate because the child does not understand what is going on? Of course not - we vaccinate them anyway. So where does the Bible tell us that one has to "understand and repent" before baptism?
Two points:Every scriptural example provided for us in the word of God involves a concious decision to be baptized and a fundamental understanding of what that means.. to die to sin and to self and to be raised new in Christ Jesus. For many early Jewish Christians it meant forsaking all to follow Christ.. it 'should' mean that much to us as well.
1. There are stories of entire households being baptized - how do you know there were no infants?
2. Even if there are no examples of infants being baptized, I trust you understand that a set of examples do not justify a generalization. If I see five women going into a restaurant, should I conclude that this restaurant is only visited by women? Such a conclusion is not justified.
You have to make an actual Biblical case that one must "understand" prior to baptism.Again, something that an infant has no comprehension of.
No one has succeeded in doing so in this thread. They all either do not understand that they cannot assume the very thing they should be proving or they make the error of assuming that examples establish a general principle.