[MENTION=90220]JLB[/MENTION] I have already provided you links in the past about the Sermon on the Mount and Jesus providing the proper interpretation of it, not the abolishment of it. Matthew 5:17-20 is still part of when Jesus said in Matthew 28:20 to observe all I commanded you, which is the correct interpretation of the Law of Moses, not the abolishment of it which is so clear.
http://www.bibletruth.cc/SermonOnMount.htm
http://www.saltshakers.com/gospels/gosp4.htm#s57
Enjoy the read. Furthermore...
In Deuteronomy 30:1–3 Moses writes: 1 “So it shall be when all of these things have come upon you, the blessing and the curse which I have set before you,
and you call them to mind in all nations where the LORD your God has banished you, 2 and you return to the LORD your God and obey Him with all your heart and soul according to all that I command you today, you and your sons, 3 then the LORD your God will restore you from captivity, and have compassion on you, and will gather you again from all the peoples where the LORD your God has scattered you. "
What is striking here is that even when Israel has been exiled to the lands of her enemies, she is still able to obey God sincerely (“all your heart and soul”) by doing all that He had commanded “today,” which means the whole Torah. Yet in exile there would be no Temple, no functioning priesthood, and laws related to the Land would not be applicable. How then could Israel be seen as obeying the Torah as given to her at Sinai, and as a result, be restored from her captivity? Is Moses suggesting a “no-win scenario?” If the way of restoration is repentance as evidenced by obedience to the commandments, and if such obedience is actually impossible because many of the commandments require the Temple, priesthood, and dwelling in the Land, then these words are without meaning. Rather, Moses’ words is that God considers obedience to those commands that are possible to keep as evidencing a genuine heart of repentance and love for Him, and He accepts this as obedience of the whole.
It does not make sense to obey God only when one is within the boundaries of Israel. If that was the case, then as soon as we get into Lebanon it is party time. Furthermore...
There are laws specific to kings, priests, men, women, widows, children, and so on. Nobody is suggesting that men need to keep the laws specifically detailed for women, or visa versa. People bring up this point in order to demonstrate logically that if some laws of Torah are given to specific groups, and therefore not to the whole, then the possibility exists that some laws could be given to Jews and not to Gentiles. The obvious problem with this line of reasoning is that when the Torah has laws for specific groups, it says so. Yet when it comes to such things as the Sabbath, the Festivals, kosher food laws, purity laws, and so on, there is no indication whatsoever that these are restricted to a specific sub-group.
Moreover, when these laws are given, it is clear they include the widest possible grouping, including both the native born and the foreigner (Sabbath: Exodus 20:10; Deuteronomy 5:14; Pesach:
Exodus 12:48; Numbers 9:11; Unleavened Bread: Exodus 12:19; Shavuot: Deuteronomy 16:10–11; Yom Kippur: Leviticus 16:29; Sukkot: Deuteronomy 16:13–14; Sacrifices (which includes purity laws):
Leviticus 17:8–9; 22:17–18, 31; Numbers 15:14–16; kosher laws (includes prohibition of ingesting blood): Leviticus 17:12–13, 15; Numbers 19:10). Furthermore, at the renewal of the Sinai covenant
before Israel entered the Land, all were included in the ceremony, including the foreigners (Joshua 8:33–35), and this ceremony of accepting the Covenant included the entire Mosaic Torah: “There was not a
word of all that Moses had commanded which Joshua did not read before all the assembly of Israel with the women, and the little ones and the strangers who were living among them.”
Paraphrased from:
http://www.torahresource.com/EnglishArticles/OLMResponse.pdf