Is Scripture Corrupt?

[Mysteryman]

Hi dadof 10

I have a busy weekend ahead of me, so I will be limited to the time I will be online. However, I am taking a moment here, to give you something to consider and think about. We will continue this conversation, or at least I will, as soon as I have the time.

You said , and I Quote :

Matt 1
and Jacob the father of Joseph the husband [aner] of Mary, of whom Jesus was born, who is called Christ. 17 So all the generations from Abraham to David were fourteen generations, and from David to the deportation to Babylon fourteen generations, and from the deportation to Babylon to the Christ fourteen generations.

18 Now the birth of Jesus Christ took place in this way. When his mother Mary had been betrothed to Joseph, before they came together she was found to be with child of the Holy Spirit; 19 and her husband [aner] Joseph, being a just man and unwilling to put her to shame, resolved to send her away quietly. (Matthew (RSV) 1)

The word "aner" in verse 19 is used for the man that MARY IS BETROTHED TO!! Certainly this man Joseph is the same man referenced in verse 16 because In both instances Matthew uses the word "ANER", which means "husband",

------------------------

dadof10

Remember I told you to leave no stone unturned ? And if you are going to discuss this with me, and if you are not going to waste my time , nor your time. You must do your homework first ! Now this is a small warning, that I will not waste my time with someone who only wants to waste someone elses time. I appreciate it that you want to discuss this further, but at least make an attempt that is worthy of your time and my time.

The greek word "aner" does not mean "husband" ! The greek word "aner" means -- "Man", and if properly translated, this word "aner" should always be translated to the word -- "Man" < Always !

The surrounding words then will indicate which man is being expressed. As with verse 18 , the word "espoused" reveals what man in verse 19 is being expressed here. The translators took the liberty to translate this word "man" (aner) as husband , to clarify for the reader. But this is interpretation instead of translating. Even though it is accurate, they still are guilty of interpretation instead of doing what they were suppose to be doing, and that is translating !

The translators took liberties that they should not have taken !

In Matthew 1:16 the word "husband" is a poor translation, and in my view was an intentional change (corruption).

There are two Joseph's here, not one ! In verse 16 , this Joseph is the father of Mary, and in verse 18, this Joseph is the husband of Mary. But there is no getting around the fact, that in both verses, the greek word "aner" should have been translated as -- "Man" in both verses !

Now, before I have to run off here, let me ask you a question. Why is it so difficult for you to count 42 generations ? From Abraham unto Christ is 42 generations, not 41 ! Is math a problem for you ? Or do you just not want to see the truth ?

Consider what I have just explained to you, and also consider that if you do not do your homework and study the scriptures as a workman (II Timothy 2:15), approved of God, then you are wasting my time, as well as your time.

I pray that we will continue this conversation.

Bless - IN Christ - MM

 

[dadof10]

That's one way of reconciling the difficulty. I sure beats MM's alternative.

My point is there is no "difficulty" at all if you can read the Bible. One who can't read the Bible could invent a "difficulty" and correspondingly absurd solution as a vain attempt to prove to themselves some sort of elite prowess beyond the abilities of the unlearned. Hypothetically. :D

Hypothetically. I think there is a difficulty here, if only a minor one. If we do a straight count, it comes out to 41, yet 3 x 14 is 42. This minor difficulty can be reconciled easily without having to deny reality.

 

[Physicist]

Hi dadof 10

I have a busy weekend ahead of me, so I will be limited to the time I will be online. However, I am taking a moment here, to give you something to consider and think about. We will continue this conversation, or at least I will, as soon as I have the time.

You said , and I Quote :

Matt 1
and Jacob the father of Joseph the husband [aner] of Mary, of whom Jesus was born, who is called Christ. 17 So all the generations from Abraham to David were fourteen generations, and from David to the deportation to Babylon fourteen generations, and from the deportation to Babylon to the Christ fourteen generations.

18 Now the birth of Jesus Christ took place in this way. When his mother Mary had been betrothed to Joseph, before they came together she was found to be with child of the Holy Spirit; 19 and her husband [aner] Joseph, being a just man and unwilling to put her to shame, resolved to send her away quietly. (Matthew (RSV) 1)

The word "aner" in verse 19 is used for the man that MARY IS BETROTHED TO!! Certainly this man Joseph is the same man referenced in verse 16 because In both instances Matthew uses the word "ANER", which means "husband",

------------------------

dadof10

Remember I told you to leave no stone unturned ? And if you are going to discuss this with me, and if you are not going to waste my time , nor your time. You must do your homework first ! Now this is a small warning, that I will not waste my time with someone who only wants to waste someone elses time. I appreciate it that you want to discuss this further, but at least make an attempt that is worthy of your time and my time.

The greek word "aner" does not mean "husband" ! The greek word "aner" means -- "Man", and if properly translated, this word "aner" should always be translated to the word -- "Man" < Always !

The surrounding words then will indicate which man is being expressed. As with verse 18 , the word "espoused" reveals what man in verse 19 is being expressed here. The translators took the liberty to translate this word "man" (aner) as husband , to clarify for the reader. But this is interpretation instead of translating. Even though it is accurate, they still are guilty of interpretation instead of doing what they were suppose to be doing, and that is translating !

The translators took liberties that they should not have taken !

In Matthew 1:16 the word "husband" is a poor translation, and in my view was an intentional change (corruption).

There are two Joseph's here, not one ! In verse 16 , this Joseph is the father of Mary, and in verse 18, this Joseph is the husband of Mary. But there is no getting around the fact, that in both verses, the greek word "aner" should have been translated as -- "Man" in both verses !

Now, before I have to run off here, let me ask you a question. Why is it so difficult for you to count 42 generations ? From Abraham unto Christ is 42 generations, not 41 ! Is math a problem for you ? Or do you just not want to see the truth ?

Consider what I have just explained to you, and also consider that if you do not do your homework and study the scriptures as a workman (II Timothy 2:15), approved of God, then you are wasting my time, as well as your time.

I pray that we will continue this conversation.

Bless - IN Christ - MM

Pateras is the Greek word for father, not aner, which is properly translated as husband in verse 19. Early Christian tradition (infancy gospels) did not refer to Mary's father as Joseph.That identification here is really an act of apologetic desperation.

 

[faithtransforms]

Scripture is NOT corrupt. But there ARE discrepancies. Did Jesus hand Judas the bread or did they dip the bread together? Did Judas hang himself or did he fall headlong into a field? There are some minor inconsistencies in the bible but they do not affect doctrine at all. I struggled with this for about 2 minutes and then realized the incredible POWER of God's Word in my life. I am 100% certain that it is THE TRUTH...the ONLY TRUTH!! It is His Mind on paper and contains EVERYTHING we need to live a victorious Christian life!! When you begin to understand the POWER of being FILLED with REVELATION of God's Word...nothing in this world can touch you, accept what He allows and what He allows is ONLY FOR YOUR GOOD!!! He is an AWESOME GOD!! Bless His Holy Name!!

 

[dadof10]

The NIV, KJV, RSV, NASB and ESV all have the word "of". Which versions have the word "from", and why is the difference important?

I think whether 'of' or 'from' is used, it still means the same thing. Some do vary on their belief of what it means though.

Me too. Usually Drew has good insight. Maybe he sees something here we don't. stay tuned...

It seems that in both cases, the word means that Jesus' kingdom is not on the earth, it is somewhere else.

It could be right where he says it is. Nor shall they say, Lo, here; or lo, there; for lo, the reign of God is within you. (Luke 17:21)

 

[dadof10]

Hi dadof 10

I have a busy weekend ahead of me, so I will be limited to the time I will be online. However, I am taking a moment here, to give you something to consider and think about. We will continue this conversation, or at least I will, as soon as I have the time.

You said , and I Quote :

Matt 1
and Jacob the father of Joseph the husband [aner] of Mary, of whom Jesus was born, who is called Christ. 17 So all the generations from Abraham to David were fourteen generations, and from David to the deportation to Babylon fourteen generations, and from the deportation to Babylon to the Christ fourteen generations.

18 Now the birth of Jesus Christ took place in this way. When his mother Mary had been betrothed to Joseph, before they came together she was found to be with child of the Holy Spirit; 19 and her husband [aner] Joseph, being a just man and unwilling to put her to shame, resolved to send her away quietly. (Matthew (RSV) 1)

The word "aner" in verse 19 is used for the man that MARY IS BETROTHED TO!! Certainly this man Joseph is the same man referenced in verse 16 because In both instances Matthew uses the word "ANER", which means "husband",

------------------------

dadof10

Remember I told you to leave no stone unturned ? And if you are going to discuss this with me, and if you are not going to waste my time , nor your time. You must do your homework first !

That's what the exegesis of the word "aner" in the NT was, homework. And, again you simply ignore it.

Now this is a small warning, that I will not waste my time with someone who only wants to waste someone elses time. I appreciate it that you want to discuss this further, but at least make an attempt that is worthy of your time and my time.

:biglol

The greek word "aner" does not mean "husband" !

According to whom? According to Strong's, who you claim to respect, you are wrong:

1) with reference to sex
a) of a male
b) of a husband
c) of a betrothed or future husband

2) with reference to age, and to distinguish an adult man from a boy

3) any male

4) used generically of a group of both men and women

I don't know what else to say. You will simply not accept reality.

The greek word "aner" means -- "Man", and if properly translated, this word "aner" should always be translated to the word -- "Man" < Always !

According to whom? "Properly translated" by you? Will you accept Strong's on this? If so, they do not make the silly claim that "aner" is ALWAYS translated "man". If that were the case, there would be no other definitions listed. Simple common sense.

The surrounding words then will indicate which man is being expressed. As with verse 18 , the word "espoused" reveals what man in verse 19 is being expressed here. The translators took the liberty to translate this word "man" (aner) as husband , to clarify for the reader. But this is interpretation instead of translating. Even though it is accurate, they still are guilty of interpretation instead of doing what they were suppose to be doing, and that is translating !

The translators took liberties that they should not have taken !

What do the surrounding verses say? First of all, the author changed from "beget" to "aner" when speaking of Joseph. That should give even you a hint that Joseph is different from all the preceding people. Next verses:

Now the birth of Jesus Christ took place in this way. When his mother Mary had been betrothed to Joseph...

Stop right here. The author assumes we already know Joseph. He doesn't say "a man named Joseph" or "another guy named Joseph, the same as her father" or even see the need to introduce him. He already did that in the previous verse. It's the same Joseph. to think otherwise is to deny reality in favor of lunacy.

...before they came together she was found to be with child of the Holy Spirit; 19 and her husband Joseph, being a just man and unwilling to put her to shame, resolved to send her away quietly.

The Greek word for "husband" above is, of course, "aner", just like in verse 16. This means Matthew, not a translator, is talking about the same man.

In Matthew 1:16 the word "husband" is a poor translation, and in my view was an intentional change (corruption).

You can think what you want, MM. You have no proof.

There are two Joseph's here, not one ! In verse 16 , this Joseph is the father of Mary, and in verse 18, this Joseph is the husband of Mary. But there is no getting around the fact, that in both verses, the greek word "aner" should have been translated as -- "Man" in both verses !

:help Again, according to WHOM?

Now, before I have to run off here, let me ask you a question. Why is it so difficult for you to count 42 generations ? From Abraham unto Christ is 42 generations, not 41 ! Is math a problem for you ? Or do you just not want to see the truth ?

As Sinthesis stated earlier, David was counted twice in Matthew's "14 generations". Simple, really. And you don't have to suspend sanity and common sense to believe it.

Consider what I have just explained to you, and also consider that if you do not do your homework and study the scriptures as a workman (II Timothy 2:15), approved of God, then you are wasting my time, as well as your time.

You have "studied" NOTHING. Have you looked up the Greek word for "husband" throughout Scripture? Of course you haven't because to do so would PROVE that "aner" is used every time a NT author references a betrothed or married man. Go to any Bible program, type in the word "husband" and look up the Greek word in that verse on BLB.com.

ANER IS THE ONLY WORD USED FOR HUSBAND. THERE IS NO OTHER. IT'S WHAT THE WORD MEANS.

I pray that we will continue this conversation.

I'm pretty sure you won't, but if you decide to, please explain how you come to the ludicrous conclusion that the word "aner" is translated as "husband" accurately EVERYWHERE but Matthew 1.

 

[faithtransforms]

The rest of the lecture.

[youtube:3ma1rwnn]http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ogG38VaSG3I&feature=related[/youtube:3ma1rwnn]

[youtube:3ma1rwnn]http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=5YKMsJvBLag&feature=related[/youtube:3ma1rwnn]

[youtube:3ma1rwnn]http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=7QSmdtgehQE&feature=related[/youtube:3ma1rwnn]

[youtube:3ma1rwnn]http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=hWJdq7MysUk&feature=related[/youtube:3ma1rwnn]

[youtube:3ma1rwnn]http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=8TffAToyojg&feature=related[/youtube:3ma1rwnn]

Misquoting Jesus...ugh!!!!!!!!!!!

 

[mondar]

The rest of the lecture.

[youtube:2wnymmv4]http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ogG38VaSG3I&feature=related[/youtube:2wnymmv4]

Misquoting Jesus...ugh!!!!!!!!!!!

LOL, yeah, he has been refuted.

[youtube:2wnymmv4]http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ZDrdQuk1Jwk[/youtube:2wnymmv4]

 

[faithtransforms]

The rest of the lecture.

[youtube:2hmbd8ub]http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ogG38VaSG3I&feature=related[/youtube:2hmbd8ub]

Misquoting Jesus...ugh!!!!!!!!!!!

LOL, yeah, he has been refuted.

[youtube:2hmbd8ub]http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ZDrdQuk1Jwk[/youtube:2hmbd8ub]

Just plain yucky!!! LOL!!!

 

[Mysteryman]

Hi all :

The greek word "aner" , from the greek, into English , should always be translated - "man". The reason being, is because this is what this greek word means, plain and simple.

The translators translated this word "aner" as husband. But that is not the correct translation of this word "aner" ! The correct translation of this word "aner" is --- "man". The correct translation of the English word "father" is the the greek word - "pater" . The correct translation of the English word "husband" is the greek word -- "hupandros"

The translators took liberties that they should not have taken, becuase they then were not translating, they were interpreting scripture instead.

When you look up the greek word "aner" in the Strongs, all they are doing is telling you what the translators did in translating this word "aner". Yes, they did translated this word "aner" as husband. But here is the problem, the word "aner" in the greek does not mean husband.

This word "aner" is a gender word, whereas the word "pater" is an ancestor word. And the word "hupandros" is ---- the woman who is under the man, or the other way of expressing it, is the man who is over the woman.

In the NT when Jesus prayed to his Father, the word "Father" is the greek word "pater" - II Corinth. 11:31 - "The God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ"

The proper greek word for "husband" is not "aner" , but -- "hupandros" - Romans 7:2

And I have not seen as of yet, anyone who has shown the names listed in Matt. chapter one, where there are 42 generations from Abraham unto Christ. Either people are lazy, or they just only want to see what their beliefs suggest. Of course this is not being a workman, not being ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.

From Abraham unto Isaac is the first generation = 1

From Isaac unto Jacob is the second generation = 2

and so on and so on, until you get to Christ, and you should end up with 42 generations.

You will find, that if this Joseph , and the word "aner" is left as the husband of Mary, you will only end up with 41 generations. But if you translated this word "aner" properly, as "man", then Mary would be the 41st generation and Christ would be the 42 nd.

 

[Mysteryman]

Hi all :

One other important thing that I want to explain about this greek word -- "aner".

This greek word -- "aner" is always used in -- relationship too

So I will give you a few verses, in order that you may understand

Act 1:11 - "Ye men (aner) of Galilee"

Acts 2:5 - "devout men (aner) "

Acts 2:14 - "Ye men (aner) of Judea"

Acts 2:22 - "Ye men (aner) of Israel"

Acts 2:29 - "men (aner) and brethren"

Acts 16:9 - "There stood a man (aner) of Macedonia"

Acts 22:3 - "I am verily a man (aner) a Jew"

Romans 4:8 - "Blessed is the man (aner) to whom the Lord will not impute sin"

I Corinth. 11:4 - "Every man (aner) praying or prophesying , having his head covered , dishonoureth his head"

I Corinth. 11:7 - "but the woman is the glory of the man (aner)"

James 1:12 - "Blessed is the man (aner) that endureth temptation"

Where the translators improperly tanslated this word "aner" to husband, and they should have properly translated this word as the word "man ; They were doing an injustice to the Word of God.

Even though there were certain verses that this man was the husband , they still had nor right in interpreting the Word of God in this manner. Their job was to translate, not interpret !

Matt. 1:16 should be translated - "man" in relationship to this woman Mary.

The same holds true with Matt. 1:19 - "Then Joseph her "man" (aner) , being a just man , and not willing to make her a publick example, was minded to put her away privily"

I Corinth. 7:2 - "let every woman have her own "man" (aner) < This verse is talking about a woman having her own husband, but if properly translated instead of being interpreted, the word "aner" here would be properly translated -- "man" and not "husband" !

 

[Sinthesis]

• Rom 7:2 - For the woman which hath an husband is bound by the law to [her] husband so long as he liveth; but if the husband be dead, she is loosed from the law of [her] husband.

In Romans 7:2, the word an?r is used three times to mean "husband". The word hypandros is an adjective that modifies the word gyn? (woman), confirming that the woman is married.

• Mat 1:17 - So all the generations from Abraham to David [are] fourteen generations; and from David until the carrying away into Babylon [are] fourteen generations; and from the carrying away into Babylon unto Christ [are] fourteen generations.

Show us where 42 generations are called for. Scripture illustrates dividing the 41 listed generations into 3 sets of 14, of which the first 2 sets overlap.

Abraham to David------------David to Exile------------Restoration to Christ
_1-Abraham-------------------David----------------------Jeconiah
_2-Isaac-----------------------Solomon-------------------Shealtiel
_3-Jacob----------------------Rehoboam-----------------Zerubbabel
_4-Judah----------------------Abijah---------------------Abiud
_5-Perez----------------------Asa-------------------------Eliakim
_6-Hezron--------------------Jehoshaphat---------------Azor
_7-Ram-----------------------Joram----------------------Zadok
_8-Amminadab--------------Uzziah----------------------Achim
_9-Nashon--------------------Jotham--------------------Eliud
10-Salmon--------------------Ahaz-----------------------Eleazar
11-Boaz-----------------------Hezekiah------------------Matthan
12-Obed----------------------Manasseh------------------Jacob
13-Jesse----------------------Amon----------------------Joseph
14-David----------------------Josiah---------------------Jesus Christ

Butchering the scripture to include an extra generation would directly contradict Matt 1:17 by having 15 generations from the restoration until Christ.

 

[dadof10]

Hi all :

The greek word "aner" , from the greek, into English , should always be translated - "man". The reason being, is because this is what this greek word means, plain and simple.

That's not what the VAST MAJORITY OF GREEK SCHOLARS THINK. It's only what you think. Can you find a Greek scholar that agrees with you that Joseph is Mary's father? This is, after all, your point.

The translators translated this word "aner" as husband. But that is not the correct translation of this word "aner" ! The correct translation of this word "aner" is --- "man". The correct translation of the English word "father" is the the greek word - "pater" . The correct translation of the English word "husband" is the greek word -- "hupandros"

Hypandros is used ONE TIME in the NT. More on this below.

The translators took liberties that they should not have taken, becuase they then were not translating, they were interpreting scripture instead.

If the ONLY meaning of "aner" is "man" aren't you INTERPRETING and "taking liberties" when you make the ridiculous assertion that the word means "father"? Please answer this basic question in your next post or your credibility will be shot.

When you look up the greek word "aner" in the Strongs, all they are doing is telling you what the translators did in translating this word "aner". Yes, they did translated this word "aner" as husband. But here is the problem, the word "aner" in the greek does not mean husband.

i thought you said Strong's is accurate? You said you prefer Strong's to Thayer's, remember. Why won't you accept their take on this when they translate the word "husband"? Are they also part of the conspiracy?

This word "aner" is a gender word, whereas the word "pater" is an ancestor word. And the word "hupandros" is ---- the woman who is under the man, or the other way of expressing it, is the man who is over the woman.

In the NT when Jesus prayed to his Father, the word "Father" is the greek word "pater" - II Corinth. 11:31 - "The God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ"

The proper greek word for "husband" is not "aner" , but -- "hupandros" - Romans 7:2

Romans 7:2

Thus a married [hypandros] woman is bound by law to her husband [aner] as long as he lives; but if her husband [aner] dies she is discharged from the law concerning the husband [aner]. 3 Accordingly, she will be called an adulteress if she lives with another man [aner] while her husband [aner]is alive. But if her husband [aner] dies she is free from that law, and if she marries another man [aner] she is not an adulteress. (Romans (RSV) 7)

In the KJV the word "hypandros" in Romans 7 is translated:

"For the woman which hath an husband [hupandros] is bound by the law to her husband [aner]so long as he liveth; but if the husband [aner] be dead, she is loosed from the law of her husband [aner].

As you can plainly see, the word "hypandros" is an ADJECTIVE. It is not a noun, as "aner" is. The word "hypandros" is modifying the noun "woman" in Romans 7:2. Just because the KJV translates the word as "which hath an husband", doesn't mean it's the proper Greek word for "husband". "Aner" is a noun, so must be translated into English as a noun.

And I have not seen as of yet, anyone who has shown the names listed in Matt. chapter one, where there are 42 generations from Abraham unto Christ. Either people are lazy, or they just only want to see what their beliefs suggest. Of course this is not being a workman, not being ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.

From Abraham unto Isaac is the first generation = 1

From Isaac unto Jacob is the second generation = 2

and so on and so on, until you get to Christ, and you should end up with 42 generations.

You will find, that if this Joseph , and the word "aner" is left as the husband of Mary, you will only end up with 41 generations. But if you translated this word "aner" properly, as "man", then Mary would be the 41st generation and Christ would be the 42 nd.

It's amazing to me that the 14 generations is so important to you that you are willing to go against ALL Greek scholars, common sentence structures, and the plain words of Scripture to make these verses add up to the magic number 42. Could it be that the word "fourteen" in Matthew 1 is a "corruption"? Maybe some evil, conspiratorial, Catholic copyist purposely changed "thirteen" to "fourteen" in an attempt to confuse us into thinking that Matthew didn't know how to add, therefore his book shouldn't be part of the NT...MMMOOUUUAAAHHHhhhhh.

 

[Mysteryman]

I have been waiting to read just one coherent comment or reply, pertaining to the first chapter of Matthew.

I guess the wait goes on. I will check in this thread on occassion , but at this time I see no reason to add to what I have already explained. Nor does it make any sense to reply to the comments that have been made at this juncture .


Waiting - :gah

 

[stovebolts]

The greek word "aner" , from the greek, into English , should always be translated - "man". The reason being, is because this is what this greek word means, plain and simple.

The translators translated this word "aner" as husband. But that is not the correct translation of this word "aner" ! The correct translation of this word "aner" is --- "man". The correct translation of the English word "father" is the the greek word - "pater" . The correct translation of the English word "husband" is the greek word -- "hupandros"

From Perseus.

http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/mor ... ior=brotoi\#lexicon


???? Root !????
a man, Lat. vir (not homo):
I. a man, opp. to a woman, Hom., etc.
II. a man, opp. to a god, ????? ?????? ?? ???? ?? id=Hom.
III. a man, opp. to a youth, a man in the prime of life, id=Hom., etc.; ??? ?????? ??????????? to be enrolled among the men, Dem.
IV. a man emphatically, a man indeed, ?????? ????, ????? Il.; ?????? ??? ????????, ?????? ?? ?????? many human beings, but few men, Hdt.
V. a man, opp. to his wife, a husband, Hom., etc.; ????? ????, Virgil's vir gregis, Theocr.

Here is an example outside of the Bible where ???? is used as husband.

http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/tex ... g=original
For this slaughter, these women made a custom and bound themselves by oath (and enjoined it on their daughters) that no one would sit at table with her husband or call him by his name, because the men had married them after slaying their fathers and husbands and sons. This happened at Miletus.

Here is an indepth study of said word.

http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/mor ... =1#lexicon

Sorry Hervey, your assertion just doesn't stand up when one considers other greek writings that support ???? as being translated as Husband.

I would suggest that words can take on different nuances. Look at the word love in Greek as example. (John 21:16)

 

[dadof10]

I have been waiting to read just one coherent comment or reply, pertaining to the first chapter of Matthew.

I guess the wait goes on. I will check in this thread on occassion , but at this time I see no reason to add to what I have already explained. Nor does it make any sense to reply to the comments that have been made at this juncture .


Waiting - :gah

:biglol Typical. You can't answer the questions so you disappear. It's what we've all come to expect from you, MM.

 

[stovebolts]

• Rom 7:2 - For the woman which hath an husband is bound by the law to [her] husband so long as he liveth; but if the husband be dead, she is loosed from the law of [her] husband.

In Romans 7:2, the word an?r is used three times to mean "husband". The word hypandros is an adjective that modifies the word gyn? (woman), confirming that the woman is married.

• Mat 1:17 - So all the generations from Abraham to David [are] fourteen generations; and from David until the carrying away into Babylon [are] fourteen generations; and from the carrying away into Babylon unto Christ [are] fourteen generations.

Show us where 42 generations are called for. Scripture illustrates dividing the 41 listed generations into 3 sets of 14, of which the first 2 sets overlap.

Abraham to David------------David to Exile------------Restoration to Christ
_1-Abraham-------------------David----------------------Jeconiah
_2-Isaac-----------------------Solomon-------------------Shealtiel
_3-Jacob----------------------Rehoboam-----------------Zerubbabel
_4-Judah----------------------Abijah---------------------Abiud
_5-Perez----------------------Asa-------------------------Eliakim
_6-Hezron--------------------Jehoshaphat---------------Azor
_7-Ram-----------------------Joram----------------------Zadok
_8-Amminadab--------------Uzziah----------------------Achim
_9-Nashon--------------------Jotham--------------------Eliud
10-Salmon--------------------Ahaz-----------------------Eleazar
11-Boaz-----------------------Hezekiah------------------Matthan
12-Obed----------------------Manasseh------------------Jacob
13-Jesse----------------------Amon----------------------Joseph
14-David----------------------Josiah---------------------Jesus Christ

Butchering the scripture to include an extra generation would directly contradict Matt 1:17 by having 15 generations from the restoration until Christ.

Great job laying this out. Slam dunk, case closed. Anything beyond this and we're just arguing to argue. ;)

 

[Mysteryman]

Still waiting for a coherent reply - :yes

 

[Mysteryman]

• Rom 7:2 - For the woman which hath an husband is bound by the law to [her] husband so long as he liveth; but if the husband be dead, she is loosed from the law of [her] husband.

In Romans 7:2, the word an?r is used three times to mean "husband". The word hypandros is an adjective that modifies the word gyn? (woman), confirming that the woman is married.

• Mat 1:17 - So all the generations from Abraham to David [are] fourteen generations; and from David until the carrying away into Babylon [are] fourteen generations; and from the carrying away into Babylon unto Christ [are] fourteen generations.

Show us where 42 generations are called for. Scripture illustrates dividing the 41 listed generations into 3 sets of 14, of which the first 2 sets overlap.

Abraham to David------------David to Exile------------Restoration to Christ
_1-Abraham-------------------David----------------------Jeconiah
_2-Isaac-----------------------Solomon-------------------Shealtiel
_3-Jacob----------------------Rehoboam-----------------Zerubbabel
_4-Judah----------------------Abijah---------------------Abiud
_5-Perez----------------------Asa-------------------------Eliakim
_6-Hezron--------------------Jehoshaphat---------------Azor
_7-Ram-----------------------Joram----------------------Zadok
_8-Amminadab--------------Uzziah----------------------Achim
_9-Nashon--------------------Jotham--------------------Eliud
10-Salmon--------------------Ahaz-----------------------Eleazar
11-Boaz-----------------------Hezekiah------------------Matthan
12-Obed----------------------Manasseh------------------Jacob
13-Jesse----------------------Amon----------------------Joseph
14-David----------------------Josiah---------------------Jesus Christ

Butchering the scripture to include an extra generation would directly contradict Matt 1:17 by having 15 generations from the restoration until Christ.

:biglol

You can't count David twice ! - :biglol

 

[stovebolts]

Hervey,

There are Three columns.
Each column has 14 rows.
How many items are there total?
(hint 3*14=x)

And you're right, you can't count David twice, so the math gets a bit trickier.

3x14=x x-1=y
What is the sum total of y?

Perhaps you would like to list the genelogical names for us just like Synth did so we can see, and count for ourselves?