Some here are misinterpreting the person in Dan.9:27 who confirms a covenant for "one week" (7 years), and causes the daily sacrifice to end and sets up the abomination of desolation as being our Lord Jesus. They're doing that to try and prove that final symbolic "one week" was fulfilled in Christ's first coming, simply because they haven't understood how God's Word shows a prophecy can have a gap of time before being completed.
God's Word nowhere states that a prophetic timeline has to happen concurrently. Instead, our Lord Jesus Himself showed in Luke 4 how a prophecy can have a huge gap of time separating its condition of fulfillment.
Luke 4:17-21
17 And there was delivered unto Him the book of the prophet Esaias. And when He had opened the book, He found the place where it was written,
18 "The Spirit of the Lord is upon me, because he hath anointed me to preach the gospel to the poor; he hath sent me to heal the brokenhearted, to preach deliverance to the captives, and recovering of sight to the blind, to set at liberty them that are bruised,
19 To preach the acceptable year of the Lord."
20 And He closed the book, and He gave it again to the minister, and sat down. And the eyes of all them that were in the synagogue were fastened on Him.
21 And He began to say unto them, "This day is this scripture fulfilled in your ears."
(KJV)
Isa 61:1-2
1 The Spirit of the Lord GOD is upon me; because the LORD hath anointed me to preach good tidings unto the meek; he hath sent me to bind up the brokenhearted, to proclaim liberty to the captives, and the opening of the prison to them that are bound;
2 To proclaim the acceptable year of the LORD, and the day of vengeance of our God; to comfort all that mourn;(KJV)
Check me out to see if I'm wrong on that. Compare that Isaiah 61 Scripture our Lord Jesus read in Luke 4. For those who can read, they'll discover our Lord Jesus did NOT finish reading the very last part I marked in bold. Instead, He closed the Book of Isaiah before that part, and declared what He read was then fulfilled at His first coming to die on the cross.
Why did He not read that last section of Isaiah 61:2 that's in bold? It's because that part is for His second coming, which is STILL future to us today!
How many years has it been since our Lord Jesus read that first section of Isaiah 61 at His first coming? Anybody?
Another example maybe?
Zech 9:9-10
9 Rejoice greatly, O daughter of Zion; shout, O daughter of Jerusalem: behold, thy King cometh unto thee: he is just, and having salvation; lowly, and riding upon an ass, and upon a colt the foal of an ass.
10 And I will cut off the chariot from Ephraim, and the horse from Jerusalem, and the battle bow shall be cut off: and he shall speak peace unto the heathen: and His dominion shall be from sea even to sea, and from the river even to the ends of the earth.
(KJV)
Surely fellow-brethren in Christ here remember our Lord Jesus sending two of His disciples to fetch an ass for Him to ride upon going into Jerusalem per Matt.21. That was the time of Zech.9:9. But Zech.9:10, that's for His future coming. How large a gap of time is that just between those two verses? Anybody?
Between Dan.9:26 and 9:27 there's a fulfillment time gap also.
God's Word nowhere states that a prophetic timeline has to happen concurrently. Instead, our Lord Jesus Himself showed in Luke 4 how a prophecy can have a huge gap of time separating its condition of fulfillment.
Luke 4:17-21
17 And there was delivered unto Him the book of the prophet Esaias. And when He had opened the book, He found the place where it was written,
18 "The Spirit of the Lord is upon me, because he hath anointed me to preach the gospel to the poor; he hath sent me to heal the brokenhearted, to preach deliverance to the captives, and recovering of sight to the blind, to set at liberty them that are bruised,
19 To preach the acceptable year of the Lord."
20 And He closed the book, and He gave it again to the minister, and sat down. And the eyes of all them that were in the synagogue were fastened on Him.
21 And He began to say unto them, "This day is this scripture fulfilled in your ears."
(KJV)
Isa 61:1-2
1 The Spirit of the Lord GOD is upon me; because the LORD hath anointed me to preach good tidings unto the meek; he hath sent me to bind up the brokenhearted, to proclaim liberty to the captives, and the opening of the prison to them that are bound;
2 To proclaim the acceptable year of the LORD, and the day of vengeance of our God; to comfort all that mourn;(KJV)
Check me out to see if I'm wrong on that. Compare that Isaiah 61 Scripture our Lord Jesus read in Luke 4. For those who can read, they'll discover our Lord Jesus did NOT finish reading the very last part I marked in bold. Instead, He closed the Book of Isaiah before that part, and declared what He read was then fulfilled at His first coming to die on the cross.
Why did He not read that last section of Isaiah 61:2 that's in bold? It's because that part is for His second coming, which is STILL future to us today!
How many years has it been since our Lord Jesus read that first section of Isaiah 61 at His first coming? Anybody?
Another example maybe?
Zech 9:9-10
9 Rejoice greatly, O daughter of Zion; shout, O daughter of Jerusalem: behold, thy King cometh unto thee: he is just, and having salvation; lowly, and riding upon an ass, and upon a colt the foal of an ass.
10 And I will cut off the chariot from Ephraim, and the horse from Jerusalem, and the battle bow shall be cut off: and he shall speak peace unto the heathen: and His dominion shall be from sea even to sea, and from the river even to the ends of the earth.
(KJV)
Surely fellow-brethren in Christ here remember our Lord Jesus sending two of His disciples to fetch an ass for Him to ride upon going into Jerusalem per Matt.21. That was the time of Zech.9:9. But Zech.9:10, that's for His future coming. How large a gap of time is that just between those two verses? Anybody?
Between Dan.9:26 and 9:27 there's a fulfillment time gap also.