Are you going to address my points?
give me a second to go back and look over them and i will address them.
If you are going to simply base your argument on that, then that means every use could be "a god."
no, it means every passage could be translated to one or the other.
Which is irrelevant as to whether or not Jesus is God.
its relevant to how "2316. theos" is used
Okay. So you have now excluded the Father from being Lord. Do you think that the Father is ever called Lord in Scripture? And, again, this is Paul expanding the Shema, giving it its full depth.
i didnt exclude anything, i posted 2 scriptures and let them speak for themselves.
It is answered. Let it go.
you are welcome to avoid what i asked. however i am willing to go over your points, just saying.