Then you don't know what the word "implied" means. In general, implying something doesn't necessarily mean that it isn't there; it may just mean it isn't explicitly stated.Ok, you used the words "strongly implied". That means it isn't there.
It's strongly implied.So, there's nothing stating the Holy Spirit is a third person.
This is a exegetical, or at a linguistic, fallacy on your part. Just because "spirit" is neuter gender, it doesn't follow that it is an indication of gender nor does it follow that the Holy Spirit isn't a person. There are inanimate objects and concepts that have a female or male gender, but it doesn't mean that we refer to them as "he" or "she."If it's by way of inference, then there is the possiblity of error, correct? Let me that the pneuma or spirit is in the neuter gender. The Greek language requires that the pronoun be the same gender as the noun. That means everywhere you see the word spirit the pronoun should be "it" not "he". If the pronoun is "he" the translator is inserting his bias. With that said, the only place the Spirit is correctly referred to as "he" is when Jesus speaks of the Helper or Comforter. But again, the pronoun must agree with the noun in gender and the noun translated comforter is masculine so the pronoun must be masculine. Effectively the "he" statements about the Spirit don't personhood.
What isn't hard to notice is that you have continually sidestepped all the strongest arguments, such as in this response, where you don't address the passages showing the personhood of the Spirit.
Because we need to be true to the Bible and keep them distinct. Remember Matt 28:19?You said it is implied that the Spirit is a third person. Since it is called the Spirit of God why would we expect a third person rather than God Himself?
And, yet, I gave some verses which refer to the Holy Spirit as the "Spirit of Jesus" and "Spirit of the Son.""Of" shows possession. The spirit belongs to God. Is the third person the possession of the first?
You really need to stop sidestepping these passages and read them.
He isn't. No person is owned by another. They are all three truly God, yet distinct, which is what Scripture reveals.According to the Creed they are three coequals. How then is the third owned by the first?
But that is not at all a logical conclusion. Why does the Bible continually keep them distinct? This is especially clear in the NT where the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are often mentioned within the same verse or passage (Matt 28:19 is an obvious example). And why is the Spirit also referred to as the Spirit of Jesus?Let me suggest that the Spirit isn't a third person but rather is the first person, the Father. Thus, a Trinity isn't the only logical conclusion.
1+1+1=3 indicates three completely separate items being added together. This is polytheism, which is your problem, not mine. Your position is 1+1=2. But the Father, Son, and Spirit aren't completely separate, they are distinct from each other, yes, but they are each truly God in substance.Since it is referred to as the spirit of both, is it owned by both?
It's definitely impossible to comprehend. It's also a logical contradiction. Please explain how it isn't. Not matter how I try when I add 1+1+1 I get 3. Every time I get 3. I never ever get 1. Can you please explain how it isn't a contradiction?
It is not the same thing. You need to pay attention to the language that is used. If it was three beings in one being, that is a contradiction. If it was three persons in one person, that is a contradiction. Three persons in one being; it is to say that there are three persons of the same substance. Again, the Bible reveals that there is one God, yet the Father is God, the Son is God, and the Holy Spirit is God, yet they are distinct. That is what we have to make sense of.That's same thing. You say one being, God. The Father is fully God, the Son is fully God, and the Holy Spirit is fully God. So, we have 3 separate persons which are one being, no?
As I have pointed out, and which you also ignored, is that the development of the Trinity took a few centuries, but the belief that Jesus was truly God was believed from at least the early second century.It baffles why people accept this. The Scriptures don't say it. It's simply the conclusion of some fifth century Christians. As I pointed out, the church didnt believe this until around 500 AD.
You disagree that polytheism contradicts Scripture? You can't be serious.Where does it contradict Scripture?
How do you not see the contradiction in your statements? "I acknowledged that Jesus is God. . . Paul said there is one God the Father. I'm simply repeating what he said." You quoted Paul to support your position that only the Father is God, yet you say that Jesus is God. Which is it? Is the Father the only God or is Jesus or both?I didn't say only the Father is God. I acknowledged that Jesus is God. I explained this to either Edward or Cooper. But, first remember that they are Paul's words not mine. Paul said there is one God the Father. I'm simply repeating what he said. Let me ask you this, would you also accuse Paul of being a polytheist? He is the one who said, there is one God, the Father. He could have said, there is one God, the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit, but He didn't. Why not? Was he lying? I mean seriously, if there is one God, the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit, isn't Paul's statement a lie and misleading the Corinthians?
Of course Paul isn't a polytheist. As I clearly pointed out, he is likely expanding on the Shema in Deut 6:4, another passage you quoted to support your contention that there is only one God, yet still claim that Jesus is also God.
Again, you contradict yourself. You say that Paul is comparing "the many gods of the pagans with the one God of the Christians. . . the Father," yet, you just stated above that Jesus is God.If we look at the context we see he compares the many gods of the pagans with the one God of Christians. The pagans served many gods, the Christians one, the Father.
At this point, here are your options, since you disagree with the Trinity:
1. Polytheism
2. Modalism
I pointed out previously, which you didn't address, that Jesus is also called the king of Kings and lord of Lords (Rev 17:14, 19:16). Again, only possible in light of the Trinity.Just like Paul said to Timothy, there is only one Potentate, one King of kings, again, was he denying the Deity of Christ? Was he lying to Timothy? Was he simply wrong and didnt know what he was talking about?
Then why would the Jews want to kill Jesus for simply stating that he was in unity of purpose with the Father?That's not the only logical conclusion. A far more logical conclusion is that it refers to unity of purpose and not number of person.
Paul isn't in error, that is what I am saying. It is your understanding and use of it that is in error, and that I have explained.There is no error in my argument. "To us there is one God, the Father", Is Paul's argument, not mine. I'm just repeating what he said. You obviously disagree with his statement. Can you please explain where His error is?
Progressive revelation means more information. Again, that the Jewish religious leaders of Jesus' day didn't believe in a triune God doesn't mean that God isn't triune. It is an error in reasoning to believe otherwise. Of course, it doesn't necessarily make it true either, but we have the rest of the NT which provides the additional, non-contradictory information.What the Parisees, Scribes, and Sadicees believed does matter. Yes Jesus could reveal more information, but God doesn't lie. He's not going to tell Israel a lie and then tell the "truth" to the church. More information, yes. Contradictory information, no.
If, in regards to these matters, "What the Parisees, Scribes, and Sadicees believed does matter," and "He's not going to tell Israel a lie and then tell the "truth" to the church," then why do you say Jesus is God when the Jews wanted to kill him for making that very claim? Jesus gave further revelation as to who he was in relation to the Father, yet they wanted to kill him for it. Or would you rather just agree with me that the Jews didn't fully know the nature of God because he hadn't revealed it to them in the OT?
Now, that he's been resurrected he's immortal? So, the Son isn't God then, as you claim. By definition, God has always existed, there was never a time when he did not exist. Again, you contradict your position.He is now. He's been resurrected.
But they weren't polytheists or Modalists either.For starters look at what the Ante-Nicene church believed. While not perfect, they had much better grasp of the Christian faith than what we have today
You are not at all following the flow of arguments, not even your own.