Corinth77777
Member
Of the terms themselves I do not considered them the same.
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Desire to be a vessel of honor unto the Lord Jesus Christ?
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Depending upon the Holy Spirit for all you do?
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Jesus Is God: Part 1
- Thread starter Hidden In Him
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One is a KJV translation and one is a newer English translation. The text behind them is the same and they mean the same thing and refer to the same divine person. Nothing more to it than that.
Corinth77777
Member
I would be scared to make statements like that
, even if I thought so. Because then if my eyes were opened to truth to see a difference I'd be shamed I was so green.But no its not truth because you say it is.
Corinth77777
Member
And also one can make the statement and even after they see some truth. Now feel they have to figure out How to make their statement true, To stand on it even when their eyes have been openedI would be scared to make statements like that
But no its not truth because you say it is.
232 Ben Yissachar
Member
The KJV translates Strong's G4151 in the following manner:
Spirit (111x)
(Holy) Ghost (89x)
Spirit (of God) (13x)
Spirit (of the Lord) (5x)
(My) Spirit (3x)
Spirit (of truth) (3x)
Spirit (of Christ) (2x)
human (spirit) (49x)
(evil) spirit (47x)
spirit (general) (26x)
spirit (8x)
(Jesus' own) spirit (6x)
(Jesus' own) ghost (2x),
Why would you be scared? Do you not study the Bible? Do you have evidence to the contrary?I would be scared to make statements like that
It is truth, but not because I say it is.
Holy Ghost = Holy Spirit = Spirit of God = Spirit of the Lord = Spirit of your Father = Spirit of Christ = Spirit of Jesus Christ = Spirit of his Son.
Corinth77777
Member
At one pt in time the son had to have glory b4 He came to earth.
Now interesting enough in the beginning was the word......etc
where was this word b4 it was made flesh.
In their places is the word different from flesh? If so how?
Now interesting enough in the beginning was the word......etc
where was this word b4 it was made flesh.
In their places is the word different from flesh? If so how?
"The Word was with God, and the Word was God"--the Word was the Son, the second person of the Trinity, who became flesh.
Corinth77777
Member
Basically humbled..you would have to humble yourself..so it's best to stay humble. As the Man who came to the wedding and sat in the front seat, and was asked to sit in the back.
You are doing it again...yes its truth because you believe from your studying it is. So therefore because you say it is.
According to your studying I guess? And what if you dont have all that you need to study correctly. Then are you still going to be so robust to make that statement?
Corinth77777
Member
I'd rather study with you to see more that we can gain together
. Would you like to do that?
Jesus didn't, but the Son of God did. Jesus was called the Son of God because he had always been the Son of God. John chose to refer to the Son of God as the Word to communicate to his readers exactly who the Son was before becoming human. It's worth noting that only John calls Jesus the Word.
Corinth77777
Member
Above is my question. How is the word and flesh different in there respective places?
Because the Bible makes it clear. I doubt there is any pastor, theologian, or scholar that would disagree. This is a very basic understanding of Scripture. Look at a verse in the KJV and then look at it in several other versions.
Mat 28:19 Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost: (KJV)
Mat 28:19 "Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit, (NASB)
Mat 28:19 Go therefore and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, (ESV)
Mat 28:19 Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, (NIV)
They are all translating the same Greek word, pneuma.
I have all I need to study correctly, which is precisely why I am "so robust" in making that statement.
I don't understand what you're asking.
The same person but the Son who was in the beginning didn't reside in a human body. He wasn't a man at that time. So as others have stated Jesus or the Son of Man didn't exist in that form in the beginning. He was in the form of God. His soul was in that body prepared for Him. He spoke of things He saw and heard in the Fathers presence from His memories as the only such eyewitness of God who has appeared in flesh on earth. In 1John, John refers to Jesus as the Word of Life, the eternal life who was with the Father in the beginning. That life appeared who they saw, heard and touched. Clearly that eternal life appeared in flesh as a Man. The Son of Man. In flesh Jesus walked among us. Though the world was brought into existence through Him the world did not reconize Him. But to those who received Him and believed in His name God gave the right that they should be called the children of God. Children born not of natural descent, nor of human decision or a husband's will, but born of God. Those who God Himself calls His children.
Consequently, when Christ came into the world, he said, “Sacrifices and offerings you have not desired, but a body have you prepared for me; 6 in burnt offerings and sin offerings you have taken no pleasure. 7 Then I said, ‘Behold, I have come to do your will, O God, as it is written of me in the scroll of the book.’ ”
Corinth77777
Member
Thanks Randy
for your responseThe question I asked was to help me explain my position.
"Above is my question. How is the word and flesh different in there respective places?"
For example the word in its respective place "was" the glory He had with God:
And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was.
Which in contrast He must not have had while on earth.
My Statement I am willing to consider is that: there is a difference between the Holy Ghost and Holy Spirit
This is an example of the changing of roles we play in this life.
If you had a daughter and she lived with you and your spouse before even thinking of marriage what would be the role or roles she played living with you vs the role she plays as a married woman living with her husband?
The first thing that she legally changed was Her last name? Why?
Now even her last name changed, is she the same person? So what changed?
And even though I may not understand it all
This is what I am considering,
️ before I go there lets look at this passage: "You, however, are not in the flesh but in the Spirit, if indeed the Spirit of God lives in you. Now if anyone does not have the Spirit of Christ, this person does not belong to him"One may say these are not different but one might want to probe into it.
My consideration based on a article I read was
The Spirit of God is the Holy Spirit, and the Spirit of Christ Having resurrected is the Holyghost.
But then I am also one that believes there is a difference in Jesus Christ vs Christ Jesus,
Kingdom of God vs Kingdom of Heaven abd eternal life vs life eternal..maybe even "the" and "thou"
But here is another scripture to consider in looking into this consideration:
"searching what, or what manner of time, the Spirit of Christ who was in them was indicating when He testified beforehand the sufferings of Christ and the glories that would follow."
I am not here to argue but to study and learn...
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Corinth77777
Member
Do you believe the Spirit of Christ indwelled the old time Saints?
Holy Ghost is English and in an older form of the English words Holy Spirit. As was shown by others its translated from the same greek words. So there is no foundation found to suggest a difference. The Spirit of God in a believer, sent in Jesus's name, as I see represents the will and presence of Christ in a believer so in that context the person of Christ. Otherwise it's the person of the Father. Those who listen and learn from the Father go to Jesus. In the last days, as in the Fathers promise, He stated I will pour out "My" Spirit. In acts 2 we read the Spirit Jesus sent He received from the Father.Thanks Randy
The question I asked was to help me explain my position.
"Above is my question. How is the word and flesh different in there respective places?"
For example the word in its respective place "was" the glory He had with God:
And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was.
Which in contrast He must not have had while on earth.
My Statement I am willing to consider is that: there is a difference between the Holy Ghost and Holy Spirit
This is an example of the changing of roles we play in this life.
If you had a daughter and she lived with you and your spouse before even thinking of marriage what would be the role or roles she played living with you vs the role she plays as a married woman living with her husband?
The first thing that she legally changed was Her last name? Why?
Now even her last name changed, is she the same person? So what changed?
And even though I may not understand it all
This is what I am considering,
One may say these are not different but one might want to probe into it.
My consideration based on a article I read was
The Spirit of God is the Holy Spirit, and the Spirit of Christ Having resurrected is the Holyghost.
But then I am also one that believes there is a difference in Jesus Christ vs Christ Jesus,
Kingdom of God vs Kingdom of Heaven abd eternal life vs life eternal..maybe even "the" and "thou"
But here is another scripture to consider in looking into this consideration:
"searching what, or what manner of time, the Spirit of Christ who was in them was indicating when He testified beforehand the sufferings of Christ and the glories that would follow."
I am not here to argue but to study and learn...
Jesus -And I will ask the Father, and he will give you another advocate to help you and be with you forever—
Jesus -But the Helper, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in My name, He will teach you all things, and bring to your remembrance all things that I said to you.
There is one body and one Spirit, just as you were called to one hope when you were called; 5 one Lord, one faith, one baptism;6 one God and Father of all, who is over all and through all and in all.
We know the Father sent Jesus and the Spirit of the one who sent Him was upon Him
The Spirit of the Sovereign LORD is on me, because the LORD has anointed me to proclaim good news to the poor. He has sent me to bind up the brokenhearted, to proclaim freedom for the captives and release from darkness for the prisoners,
From the Father through the Son as in all things.
So the one and only Spirit of God you should see the person of the Father as its His Spirit and in certain contexts the person of Christ. What you won't find is a 3rd distinct person with the own mind and will. One God the Father and one Lord Jesus Christ as I read. No 3rd person.
And in Christ before all things and from the will of another all the fullness of God was pleased to dwell in the Son. Col 1:19 so the Son is all that the Father is. God. God from true God not true God from true God as the Deity is and remains the Fathers. The Father in the Son and the Son in the Father. They are one. God was the Word as in the Word has the Fathers very nature found in Him. The Father's fullness.
Corinth77777
Member
However you want to put it, doesn't take away from my consideration
Corinth77777
Member
The ideal of the Trinity is that God was manifested in 3 distint persons.
My goal is to show that there was a difference in the termS. I SHOWED HOW- THE MARRIED WOMAN DID NOT STOP BEING THE SAME PERSON BUT HER ROLES CHANGED WITH HER MARITAL STATUS..[DIDNT MEAN TO HIT THE CAPITAL FONT]
So given that her last name changed it means something, does it not?
And so does when you change a word from foot to feet, or add an "s" to shoe.
The kjv makes a difference, and I do consider there is a difference.
Randy
My goal is to show that there was a difference in the termS. I SHOWED HOW- THE MARRIED WOMAN DID NOT STOP BEING THE SAME PERSON BUT HER ROLES CHANGED WITH HER MARITAL STATUS..[DIDNT MEAN TO HIT THE CAPITAL FONT]
So given that her last name changed it means something, does it not?
And so does when you change a word from foot to feet, or add an "s" to shoe.
The kjv makes a difference, and I do consider there is a difference.
Randy
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