You've asked me no question(s). Instead, what you've been doing is writing nonsense, in your broken English, and then miscalling your nonsense, "questions" and "my question".
If you want to ask me a question, be my guest: if you do, I'll answer it. But understand that just because you continue to meaninglessly, reflexively string some words together and stick a question mark onto the end of them, I'm not about to play along with you at your game of make-believe, pretending that your nonsense—your non-questions—are questions.
Twice, I've asked you: "Is the Father Lord? Yes or No?"
You: <NO ANSWER, STILL>
Once again, you rattle on. You do know that the ad hominem is a sure sign you've lost the argument, Right? And, yet again, you haven't answered the question. You can deny it all you want but it's there for everyone to read. I know why you won't answer. Because your position is indefensible. That's why we get these diatribes and rattling on. You have no defense for you position.
But, let's talk about the language since you seem to be stuck on pagans gods.
Then
the LORD appeared to him by the terebinth trees of Mamre, as he was sitting in the tent door in the heat of the day.
2 So he lifted his eyes and looked, and behold,
three men were standing by him; and when he saw them, he ran from the tent door to meet them, and bowed himself to the ground,
(Gen. 18:1-2 NKJ)
Here Moses writes that the LORD appeared to Abraham, then he says three "men" were standing there. Was the pre-incarnate Christ a man? The Bible calls Him both LORD and man. He hadn't been born to Mary yet. So which is it? According to your argument He must have been a man because Moses wrote that He was a man.
16 Then the men rose from there and looked toward Sodom, and Abraham went with them to send them on the way. (Gen. 18:16 NKJ)
Then the men rose and looked toward Sodom. Again, they are called men. As the story continues we find this.
Now
the two angels came to Sodom in the evening, and Lot was sitting in the gate of Sodom. (Gen. 19:1 NKJ)
Now Moses calls the two "men," that went on ahead of the LORD, angels. So, what were they? Were they men or angels?
You see, if we understand language this is easily understood. However, if use the method you've based your argument on, well, It's a roll of the dice. Just pick whichever you want. I could give you many more examples of this if you'd like. It's all through the Bible. If we use your line or reasoning, that because Isaiah called a statue a god, therefore it a god, then you have to say the pre-incarnate Christ a man.