Vic C.
Member
- Mar 16, 2003
- 18,230
- 4
1- YesOrion said:1-So then, this wasn't anything to do with some "new way of thinking", but just because there was no witness and no second adulterer, or otherwise, 2- Jesus would have said, "Yes, the law of Moses is correct. They should be stoned." Would Jesus have picked up the first stone, 3- being that he had no sin?
2- no
3- it had nothing to do with having "no sin", but rather the particular sin of the accused. If you were a witness who was also guilty of adultery, you'd be disqualified. You can surely see the potential hypocrisy in pointing a finger at someone when you were just as guilty for the same sin.
Jewish idiom... it was well known among those in His time... and to those who knew Jewish law, what He meant by it. That is explained in the context of the passage. They all began to walk away once they realized the message of Jesus' words and actions.And what is the purpose, then, of even saying "let him who is without sin. . . . . ", when the obvious statement should have been, "without the second adulterer and a witness, it is not lawful to stone this woman.". . . ?
Idiom, wikipedia
An idiom is generally a colloquial metaphor  a term which requires some foundational knowledge, information, or experience, to use only within a culture where parties must have common reference. Idioms are therefore not considered a part of the language, but rather a part of the culture. As cultures are typically localized, idioms are more often not useful for outside of that local context. However some idioms can be more universally used than others, and they can be easily translated, metaphorical meaning can be more easily deduced.
I can't stress enough the importance of history and culture when reading the Bible.