Good bye then!I think we’ve reached the end point.
Join For His Glory for a discussion on how
https://christianforums.net/threads/a-vessel-of-honor.110278/
https://christianforums.net/threads/psalm-70-1-save-me-o-god-lord-help-me-now.108509/
Read through the following study by Tenchi for more on this topic
https://christianforums.net/threads/without-the-holy-spirit-we-can-do-nothing.109419/
Join Sola Scriptura for a discussion on the subject
https://christianforums.net/threads/anointed-preaching-teaching.109331/#post-1912042
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Good bye then!I think we’ve reached the end point.
Which poster is that? I haven’t seen anyone post such a misunderstanding. Indeed, no one could misunderstand that as it is plain in all main Christian translations.One poster doesn’t understand that Jesus was conceived by the Holy Spirit because of the modern translations. That is less powerful and truth for them is lost.
If you are advocating for someone then you should already know what was originally written. Before one accuses or advocates for another there has to be tangible proof or otherwise it is only hearsay without proof.If you’re expecting an easy answer, there isn’t one. To desire to find out what was really in the mind of the author (the real scripture) is a requirement for finding it. Most don’t have that on the agenda. It requires reading different translations but needs to include the Greek direct but awkward presentation. It also requires being steeped in the writings of the other authors. Knowing false theology helps to discern when a translator put their personal spin on the words chosen. The question turns on if one wants truth or a more palatable presentation.
Who is there on earth who has the original documents and understands that language?If you are advocating for someone then you should already know what was originally written. Before one accuses or advocates for another there has to be tangible proof or otherwise it is only hearsay without proof.
I give up. Certainly not the King James translators.Who is there on earth who has the original documents and understands that language?
I asked this earlier, but maybe you missed it:One poster doesn’t understand that Jesus was conceived by the Holy Spirit because of the modern translations. That is less powerful and truth for them is lost.
This is more or less an ad hominem attack. Something like “There is something wrong with people who like the KJV.” Is that same character fault seen in those who like Shakespeare?I have written this about the KJV at an earlier time but I will repeat it...
I think that people use the KJV because they equate the olde Englyshe with somehow feeling "religious" or "holy". After all, God cannot speak in the people's dialect, can He? The mountain on which He dwells must be approached with fear and reverence, or so they think.
If anyone has read or enjoyed poetry they ought to realize that because nobody on earth talks to others in that matter they ought to stop.The problem? When Jesus was on Earth he was first a carpenter, then a homeless wanderer. His language was Aramaic, the language of the common people. He did not speak in some florid language, akin to the KJV Englyshe. Does anyone think that when He was addressing thousands of people He spoke in a language the mostly illiterate people couldn't understand? Luke 9:11, "But when the crowds found out, they followed him. He welcomed them, spoke to them about the kingdom of God, and cured those who needed healing."
The KJV was a good translation for the people of the early 17th Century, but it is now a dead language. Nobody on Earth speaks or writes this way in 2022, including those who communicate on this forum. In fact, another Christian forum has banned KJVOs from putting forth more of their opinions on the subject.
This is assumed. That modern translations are more likely to reflect the personal theology of the translator escapes people. That verses that speak of Christ’s deity are removed escapes them. (Of course not all, even the stupidest among us would see that and be suspicious.)To claim that the King James Version is the best translation today cannot be justified. It was based in part on earlier translations, is filled with comments such as "or [the word/phrase in question]" and the translators in their preface expected it to be modified. That has proven true because there are a) better sources available today, both Biblical and otherwise, b) there is a better understanding of the Biblical cultures as a result of finding more early texts, and c) today's scholarship is excellent, resulting in truly excellent translations. We have a plethora of excellent modern translations which clearly put forth God's message to us in our own language.
How do you KJV people account for the obvious addition to Romans 8:1? "There is therefore now no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit." (KJV) which is properly translated "Therefore, there is now no condemnation for those who are in Christ Jesus". (NIV) "Many manuscripts omit “who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.” King James Study Bible Notes. "walk according to the flesh . . . the Spirit. This phrase is not found here in the earliest manuscripts but only at the end of v. 4, perhaps indicating an inadvertent copyist insertion. NKJV MacArthur Study Bible, 2nd Edition.
This is an example of an insulting question. I say again, I also read Shakespeare and I don’t require the words be modern.So, Dorothy (and others), how is your unicorn? Job 39:9 -- "Will the unicorn be willing to serve thee, or abide by thy crib?" and elsewhere?
I will get back to you on this.I asked this earlier, but maybe you missed it:
Which poster doesn’t understand that, as I haven’t seen anyone post such a misunderstanding?
Shakespeare is not the Bible. His words were not inspired by God.
Like where?And I don't understand your comment about one poster. So what? There are many people who misinterpret the KJV because it is written in a dead language.
Example please and make it meaningful. Don’t bring something absurd like “unicorns.” Good thing it never mentioned large lizards because until the 19th century, those were referred to as “dragons.”"The educated can read and understand the KJV as well as Shakespeare" has no basis in fact. None.
The KJV is often misinterpreted. Your comment about "begotten" is a perfect example.
You’re dodging my questions. You justified the erroneous teaching of Riplinger, whom you clearly have not read about, by stating that you have read worse things from other Christians. If false teaching is sin, and it is, then how do you biblically justify her ?
How did he become deity?What is so difficult to understand about this? "The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the one and only Son, who came from the Father, full of grace and truth." John 1:14 NIV
or here...
"No one has ever seen God, but the one and only Son, who is himself God and is in closest relationship with the Father, has made him known." John 1:18 NIV
... and in many other places.
Clearly deity has not been removed.
BTW, I chose the NIV because it is the best-selling translation.
What facts would convince you that educated people can read and understand the KJV and Shakespeare?Shakespeare is not the Bible. His words were not inspired by God.
And I don't understand your comment about one poster. So what? There are many people who misinterpret the KJV because it is written in a dead language.
"The educated can read and understand the KJV as well as Shakespeare" has no basis in fact. None.
The KJV is often misinterpreted. Your comment about "begotten" is a perfect example.
I think it’s Jaybo. He accused me of misunderstanding begotten which leads me to think the opposite is true. Am I in error?I asked this earlier, but maybe you missed it:
Which poster doesn’t understand that, as I haven’t seen anyone post such a misunderstanding?
Parkhurst, Rose & Major In their Greek and English lexicon make the following point “... Though I am not ignorant how strenuously some great and good men have insisted that this term relates to the divinity or divine nature in Christ yet truth obliges me to declare that I append it strictly and properly refers to his humanity which as it was begotten of God was therefore the son of God and as no other man was thus begotten, was the only begotten son of god…”How did he become deity?
You can only quote others’ arguments? You, yourself, have no thoughts on the matter?Parkhurst, Rose & Major In their Greek and English lexicon make the following point “... Though I am not ignorant how strenuously some great and good men have insisted that this term relates to the divinity or divine nature in Christ yet truth obliges me to declare that I append it strictly and properly refers to his humanity which as it was begotten of God was therefore the son of God and as no other man was thus begotten, was the only begotten son of god…”
A Greek and English Lexicon to the New Testament. Longman, London 1845, page 402
Mounce in his Analytical lexicon to the Greek New Testament makes the point that Monogenes refers to the “...peculiar generation of Christ…” That is to the way in which he was born, it has little to do with his divinity and everything to do with his Humanity.
Mounce, William D. The analytical Lexicon to the Greek New Testament zondervan, 1993, ISBN 0310542103
They are quite right.You can only quote others’ arguments? You, yourself, have no thoughts on the matter?
Theologians are as often atheists as not. Shall I rebuttal their statements? It’s like having a conversation with them, not you. I prefer you.
But I’m not talking to them and they are dead wrong. In a discussion you need to present what you think. If you can only quote what others think, you have merely borrowed thoughts. It’s worth the effort to have your own. Try it!They are quite right.