Re: We Obtain The Righteousness Of God By Faith Apart From W
Terral said:
That is it? Thank you for making my point . . . Please provide that list of how many you obey and disregard anytime you wish.
I don't disregard anything. It's all scripture. I believe torah obedience is a gradual process. Taking the steps of Abraham (Romans 4:12).
And no, I have not come to full compliance yet. That is not because I have disregarded it. That is because I am learning. You have to be taught it.
Heh . . . believe the right thing? That is it? Please forgive, but this is not even good chat . .
Well, I did answer your "yes" or "no" question. So I don't understand where "that is it?" comes from.
If you are going to write your posts in English, then please write in English. There is no Yahshua anywhere in my Bible.
Not in English. In the Hebrew it is. It is the same name as the one translated "Joshua".
It is the Messiah's proper name.
We agree that one lives by the “faith of Jesus†(Romans 3:26), but the point is over the ‘righteousness of God’ and how one obtains that. The saving ‘faith’ you are talking about comes from hearing the gospel itself (Romans 10:17) and the ‘righteousness of God’ is imputed upon that faith by God Himself (Romans 4:4-6) apart from any works. Thus far your Legalism is void from this post.
I agree with you. How one attains the righteousness of Yahweh is not through works. Never was. Never will be. So you are falsely accusing me (again) about something I did not say.
Where did Abraham go upon seeing death? Into heaven? No. Let’s stop comparing apples we have today “IN†Christ Jesus (Ephesians 2:6-7) to the oranges of righteousness that men had before God and one another in the OT. Abraham went down to Sheol “and he was gathered to his people†(Genesis 25:8) just like everybody else with the fathers.
This is completely off topic. Where he went is not the subject. Whether or not he was justified by faith apart from works was the nature of what I said.
In Abraham's case, in direct contradiction to what you said (that no one in the "OT" was justfied by faith apart from works) he was justified by faith apart from works. Where he went when he died is irrelevant.
The ‘faith of Jesus’ you are talking about above was milled out for us at Calvary. Even Peter and the Twelve had no access to that in the Four Gospels. The term ‘faith’ is not even used in the Gospel of John (NASB) to demonstrate the fact that our saving “faith of Jesus†was still “IN†Him.
This is an argument from silence.
Nobody pointed to Isaiah 53 to prove Jesus Christ was the “Son of God†2000 Years ago.
Because Isaiah 53 does not say anything about "Son of God". This is irrelevant to my original statement. You said Christ died for no one in the "OT". Isaiah 53 is a direct rebuttal of that.
The chief priests and scribes and Pharisees were all well aware of Isaiah 53, but they crucified Christ anyway. Satan knows this Bible better than anyone here and he never understood Isaiah 53 pointing to Christ dying for our sins, or he would have NEVER crucified the Lord of Glory. 1 Corinthians 2:6-8. The fact that prophecy appears in the Old Testament does not ‘save’ anyone from there sins.
They were aware of many things. They just (a) didn't apply them or (b) were ignorant of what it meant.
Besides, this is again off topic. Just because some people didn't see it doesn't mean it isn't there.
Here is the problem with your theory: If anyone could obtain the saving “faith of Jesus†BEFORE Christ died for our sins, then there is another avenue to have sins forgiven right now today.
This is the problem with your assertions: you don't seem to understand the implications of "faith of". The "faith of" Yahshua was his trust in Yahweh no matter what.
This is how we should believe.
Is there another way to the Father but through His Only Begotten Son? NO! Did Abraham profess his faith in our Lord Jesus Christ; believing that He is Lord and God raised Him from the dead (Romans 10:9)? No.
We don't know what understanding Abraham had. All we know is that he trusted in Yahweh. The contents of what he believed does not change the nature of the faith: complete trust in Yahweh no matter what he says.
And, btw, we are also told to have the "faith of" Abraham:
Romans 4:12
And the father of circumcision to them who are not of the circumcision only, but who also walk in the steps of that
faith of our father Abraham, which he had being yet uncircumcised.
Romans 4:16
Therefore it is of faith, that it might be by grace; to the end the promise might be sure to all the seed; not to that only which is of the law, but to that also which is of the
faith of Abraham; who is the father of us all,
His understanding of the Messiah, as little or much as he knew, is seen here:
Genesis 22:8
And Abraham said, My son, God will provide himself a lamb for a burnt offering: so they went both of them together.
John 8:56
Your father Abraham rejoiced to see my day: and he saw it, and was glad.
Galatians 3:16
Now to Abraham and his seed were the promises made. He saith not, And to seeds, as of many; but as of one, "And to thy seed", which is Christ.
Even Moses had an understanding of Messiah!
Hebrews 11:26
Esteeming the reproach of Christ greater riches than the treasures in Egypt: for he had respect unto the recompence of the reward.
The fact that someone hears a prophet pointing to Calvary in the OT gives NOBODY eternal redemption.
Yet Abraham, for example, does have eternal redemption. He and all the faithful in Hebrews 11 saw ahead:
Hebrews 11:13
These all died in faith, not having received the promises, but having seen them afar off, and were persuaded of them, and embraced them, and confessed that they were strangers and pilgrims on the earth.
Otherwise Christ came and died FOR NOTHING. When God raised Christ from the dead, then He led a host of captives (Ephesians 4:8) into the heavenly and you can bet the house that Abraham was among them.
I don't doubt Abraham was among them. However, this does not only speak of the righteous in Abraham's bosom. I believe it has dual application. It declares the freedom of all Israel in exile too, in their captivity.
He quotes this:
Psalm 68:18
Thou hast ascended on high, thou hast led captivity captive: thou hast received gifts for men; yea, for the rebellious also, that יהוה Elohim might dwell among them.
The few verses down qualify what the "captivity" is:
Psalm 68:22
The Lord said,
I will bring again from Bashan, I will bring my people again from the depths of the sea:
Same terminology used here when the children of Israel were delivered out of trouble in the land of Canaan from the pagans:
Judges 5:12
Awake, awake, Deborah: awake, awake, utter a song: arise, Barak, and
lead thy captivity captive, thou son of Abinoam.
“Messiah†(mashiyach #4899) is the name of the ‘king of Israel’ translated “anointed†37 times and just twice into “Messiah†(Daniel 9:25-26).
"Messiah" is not a name.
You will not find Paul saying that anyone is baptized into “Messias,†because that is Christ’s name “according to the flesh.â€Â
This is based on nothing but opinion, and lacks substance or relevance in this little discussion.
Part of Israel’s blindness (Romans 11:25) to these things of ‘the mystery’ (Ephesians 3:3) is over this concept of “Messiah†being a physical ‘King of Israel.’ It is not that Christ is the goal of the Law.
Well, as far as "goal of the law", you are arguing with the actual Greek and the context of Romans 10:4.
And Messiah is a physical King of Israel.
Jews are bound under the tutor of Mosaic Law to lead them to Christ, so they can be justified by the same ‘faith of Jesus’ as Gentiles who know nothing about keeping Mosaic Law.
Romans 7:1. Galatians 4:21.
Pagans know nothing about the torah. Those who believe in Messiah have access to it by the scriptures, which validates their faith. As such, they are not "pagans" anymore.
Your point about Abraham is that men have always been justified by believing God, but God imputing His Righteousness upon those with the ‘faith of Jesus’ is a completely different thing entirely.
So
you say...
Paul says we become the ‘new creation’ (Galatians 6:15) “created IN Christ Jesus†(Ephesians 2:10), which means we are something totally NEW. If the same thing took place for Abraham, then Paul is a liar in giving us this teaching in the New Testament. The fact that Abraham was gathered to his people tells you that Paul is teaching something new here in the New Testament.
No, this means individually. If Abraham was justified by faith apart from works, he became a new regenerated individual too.
Same here with Shaul (Saul):
1 Samuel 10:6
And the Spirit of יהוה will come upon thee, and thou shalt prophesy with them, and shalt be turned into another man.
This principle was not established in the NT.