faithtransforms
Member
- Nov 15, 2007
- 624
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- #21
seekandlisten said:I think the 'eastern' theists have a better definition of 'omnipresent' then our 'western' idea of it.
jasoncran said:of course you would,lol the bible through a panthiestic world view.
In 'eastern' theism, omnipresence is defined as God is present everywhere. This is just the beginning of that statement to clarify what I meant. In 'western' theism it takes on the meaning that God is present everywhere at the same time. Do you see the difference? I don't see how you attribute this to looking at the bible 'through a panthiestic worldview' as I'm not suggesting you worship a tree but pointing out the different ideas behind the definition of what omnipresent' means of which I think the 'eastern' theists have a better grasp of conveying the meaning when you look into what they mean by their definition.
jasoncran said:btw greek ideas(stoicism, and epicureansism aren not eastern but western unless you considered hellinistic culture fully eastern which its not)
I'm quite aware that the hellinistic culture has to do with Greek influence? Did you know that Hellinistic philosophy and Western philosophy are one and the same? Or is that what you were getting at?
cheers
I'm afraid i don't get the difference. If God is present everywhere, then He is present everywhere all the time. How could he not be?