You have to clothe, feed and house some.
YLT
Exo 21:10 `If another woman he take for him, her food, her covering, and
her habitation, he doth not withdraw;
Exo 21:11 and if these three he do not to her, then she hath gone out for nought, without money.
KJV
Exo 21:10 If he take him another wife; her food, her raiment, and
her duty of marriage, shall he not diminish.
Exo 21:11 And if he do not these three unto her, then shall she go out free without money.
He will not deny her, her conjugal rights. Which would not allow her to have children if she didn't have any. Paul speaks of not denying one another conjugal rights.
1Co 7:3 Let the husband render unto the wife
due benevolence: and likewise also the wife unto the husband.
This is one of the sites I read as well. Good site.
You may not agree that I've made a convincing case, but I maintain that these verses support my statement. In it,
Ephesians 5:28 says, "So husbands ought to love their own wives as their own bodies;
he who loves his
wife loves himself.".
That isn't the verse/s you quoted before. I think that this verse is somewhat more supportive, for the case of one wife. However, wouldn't a husband be called to love each wife as his own body. A widower who remarries is called to love his second wife the same way. The one who is legally divorced is called to love his second wife the same way. So if a man had more than one wife how would you word this scripture differently? He who loves his wives loves himself would be one way.
Is there anywhere in the New Testament that speaks to a man and his wives?
Any instruction for handling that household?
Nope, and there isn't one that speaks against it either. It isn't listed in the lists of sins either.
I'm not being snarky with you. It's an honest question.
Don't worry, I don't think you are being rude or snarky at all and I don't see you trying to shame other Christian into seeing your point of view. I hope that I have not appeared to be that way either. We are just debating about what scripture actually says. I've taken up the other side of the debate because I have personally been asked this question, and as a Christian couldn't give a definitive answer from scripture.
If scripture doesn't say specifically that one model is in concert with his plan, but it refers to one model consistently when referring to marriage, I take it to support that model.
I agree, I believe it supports that model too. But one of the questions in the OP is, 'is it a sin'. It's been said many times on this forum that God does not change, He does not change in His nature, etc. Does God see it as a sin?
Again, you may not accept that my case is convincing, but I think it's odd that you say you don't know how this doesn't support my case at all.
Eph. 5:22-23 I believe is a weak argument. Not that it is no argument at all.
It makes sense to me that societies and the nations became more structured and established, there would be a stronger support structure for women who were left alone. Less laws to protect their rights or to punish men who abused them.
What laws changed to protect women between Moses day and the second temple period.
Let's be real,it's not long when it will be legal in america.if it not a sin then why are we going to speak against it?
I don't think it will be easily be made legal in America but not because of Biblical reasoning.
Same-sex intimate relationships being sin is easy to prove through scripture. Polygamy, not so much.
It's like slavery. Paul never said slavery was a sin. In fact he said if one was a slave they should stay with their master. So if one was in a polygamous marriage, when they became a Christian, would Paul have told them that they were sinning and had to divorce or leave all but one wife? On that I believe the scripture is silent, both by the Apostles and Jesus.