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Pre Wrath overview

Some say that End Times doctrine is a non essential doctrine. Whether or not remains to be seen if and when the events in Revelation take place. We are warned many time over to not be deceived. I think it's wise to heed that warning.

One thing that studying End Times has done for me is it has broadened my understanding of Scripture. It has exposed me to things in the Bible I may have not given a second thought... like prophecy.
 
Hi Phil,

By all means if my comments offend you don't read them.

On the other hand if my comments are just nonsense it should be very easy to bibliclly disprove what I say.

And again you just don't get it. The "end of age" does NOT mean the time when the Gospels and Epistles were written , but when the Son of Man returns.

Yes, I kow and I put up three verses which mention when He returns and you called the biblical quotes nonsense.
Here they are again, if they don't say He is coming then, what do they say?

Here are some verses that show that Jesus would come in the first century.

Matthew 10
23When you are persecuted in one place, flee to another. I tell you the truth, you will not finish going through the cities of Israel before the Son of Man comes.

John 21
23Because of this, the rumor spread among the brothers that this disciple would not die. But Jesus did not say that he would not die; he only said, "If I want him to remain alive until I return, what is that to you?"

Rev 2
25Only hold on to what you have until I come.

noble6
 
There is one statement in the Olivet Discourse that takes any near/far, dual fulfill, etc out of the prophecy:

21"For then there will be a great tribulation, such as has not occurred since the beginning of the world until now, nor ever will.

There is no possible way that there are two of these and the rest of the sequence of events is forever cemented to this timeframe. The use of immediately and THEN and all the rest ties it in and there is no doubt about it.

This is a common misperception by those who end up becoming partial preterists. First, a preterist is willing to take things spiritually as they suit their view and then hyper-literally as it suits them without regard to context or continuity.

For instance, as a person leaning in the partial preterist direction, please do lay out for exactly where the division is between the past and the future from today? Where is you gap? Futurists have theirs in Daniel, while some preterists have it in Matthew 24 others put all of Matthew 24-25 in the past. But no partial preterist puts all of Revelation in the past. Just where is your division so that we can analyze it? Chapter 19? Chapter 20?

The point is, in dealing with the misperception of what near/far fulfillments are, is :

1) They are part of Scripture. Daniel 8 and Daniel 7 both speak of a “little horn†arising but they arise in different empires in each chapter. This correlates to what Jesus said in Matthew 24:15 about understanding the abomination. He knew at that time that one was past ad one was yet future.

2) This speaks to the principle of types. How a thing in the past can represent in a small way something greater. For instance on of the images in Revelation regarding “great†Babylon and Jesus coming like a thief in the night (Rev. 16:12-5) were fulfilled at a smaller scale with literal Babylon and Cyrus. He dried up the Euphrates and snuck into the city at night like a thief and overthrew it suddenly. So we don’t miss the typology, God hands it to us on a silver platter in Isaiah 44:28-45:1.

3) There is no reason to thing that prophecies about the second coming will be fulfilled differently that that of the1st. Many were completely fulfilled literally in Jesus. Although there was application to the contemporary audience, whether it was a name or a virgin birth or a suffering servant or riding a donkey.

Therefore, when one considers all these factors it is no small step to see the fall of Jerusalem as a type at the beginning of the Church Age as a type of the fall of the world at the beginning of the Millennial Kingdom. For to severe the literal fulfillment from its foreshadowed precursor tantamount to denying that God can fulfill prophecy as literally as He did regarding the 1st coming.

Another problem with preterism and when a literal and spiritual fulfillment is required is as it applies to Daniel’s 70 Sevens. There are three significant dates that need to be reckoned with:

The end of the 69th Seven

The midpoint of the last Seven
The End of the entire 70 Sevens


Preterists seem stumble on this one. Where do they put the beginning of Jesus ministry? Were do they put the crucifixion? Some want the crucifixion to be the end all of the 70 sevens but then they are forced to call the beginning of Jesus ministry at the baptism an abomination of desolation and there is no 7-year covenant that Jesus made3 ½ years before that time.

Another choice is equally unsavory. If the crucifixion is t the midpoint then how is it reconciled with being called and abomination even by Jesus in Matthew 24:15? And what significant ground breaking event happened 3 ½ years after the crucifixion to complete the entire 70 Sevens? This one is even worse, for then one would have to admit that Jesus’ sacrifice did not fulfill the 6 things of Daniel 9:24, but they had to wait another 3 ½ years for fulfillment.

Both of these choices ignore the clear wording of Daniel’s text, which says after the 69th Seven the Messiah is cut off. That leaves another seven to be completed. And it is that final seven that completes the six things listed in Daniel 9:24, not the 69th. And regarding continuity, nothing happened 3 ½ or 7 years later. No record of a seven-year covenant either.

Only the near/far perspective of futurism gives sanity to this passage.
 
Matt 24:34"Truly I say to you, this generation will not pass away until all these things take place.

Noibody has ever shown me any reason to consider that THIS generation of the Olivet Discourse is any different than the THIS generation of Matthew 23.

Mat 23:1 Then Jesus spoke to the crowds and to His disciples:

(It is very important to remember the context and audience. The religious leaders were there too since He gave them the “woes to youâ€Â)

Mat 23:35 So all the righteous blood shed on the earth will be charged to you, from the blood of righteous Abel to the blood of Zechariah, son of Berechiah, whom you murdered between the sanctuary and the altar.
Mat 23:36 I assure you: All these things will come on this generation!
Mat 23:37 "Jerusalem, Jerusalem! The city who kills the prophets and stones those who are sent to her. How often I wanted to gather your children together, as a hen gathers her chicks under her wings, yet you were not willing!
Mat 23:38 See, your house is left to you desolate.
Mat 23:39 For I tell you, you will never see Me again until you say, Blessed is He who comes in the name of the Lord!"

(who knows what else Jesus may have said, but what is clear, is that it was in public during the day and in the temple since Matthew 24:1 has Jesus and the disciples leaving for the Mt. of Olives. My point will simply be to show that Jesus did say more about Jerusalem and its fall while still in the Temple and in public on this very subject.)

Luk 20:1 One day as He was teaching the people in the temple complex and proclaiming the good news, the chief priests and the scribes, with the elders, came up….

(The point to note here is that Luke is recording the same Temple discourse that Matthew 22 & 23 is recording. Both have the “render unto Caesar what is Caesar’s dialogue and the widow and the mite, etc. The fact that they are not exactly the same speaks to the fact that Jesus said a lot more than was able to be recorded. If Jesus taught for hours then a small Gospel book by our standards would have to carefully pick and choose what to include.)

Luk 21:37 During the day, He was teaching in the temple complex, but in the evening He would go out and spend the night on what is called the Mount of Olives.
Luk 21:38 Then all the people would come early in the morning to hear Him in the temple complex

(Just so you know how extensive Jesus’ teachings were, Luke feels that it is necessary to state this fact that Jesus came in the morning to teach during the day. And when they day was over, He went to the Mt of Olives for the night. So if Jesus conservatively taught 6 hours out of 12 available hours in the Jewish day, just how many equivalent N.T pages would it fill if recorded verbatim?)

Luk 21:5 As some were talking about the temple complex, how it was adorned with beautiful stones and gifts dedicated to God, He said,

(Do you see anywhere in this passage where it is recorded that Jesus left the Temple? Luke who is so careful about what He states in Luke 21:37-38 doesn’t mention that Jesus is on his way to leave when the question is asked about the buildings. After all Jerusalem’s house is to be left desolate as Matthew recorded. The buildings were beautiful. Jesus felt the need to respond that they would crumble. And then the disciples asked when?

So, we could say that Jesus decided to ignore them from that point on and walked back in silence to the Mt of Olives to retire for the night before the dialogue continues. But is that who Jesus is? Is Jesus going to ignore the question of His disciples into whom He is pouring His life and teaching? Is He going to make them ask again as if He were aloof or in a dour mood? This is Jesus’ last week and the imparting of important last minute teaching was imperative and I will argue that Jesus taught as many hours as humanly were possible during the day in the Temple and did not pass up any questions or opportunities to extend His teaching. Would this be the Jesus you would expect?Of course alternatively, the disciples could have been the quite ones and mulled it over until later that night and Luke just failed to mention it.)

Mat 24:3 While He was sitting on the Mount of Olives, the disciples approached Him privately…

Mar 13:3 While He was sitting on the Mount of Olives across from the temple complex, Peter, James, John, and Andrew asked Him privately,

(The issue is that you have to come to terms with the when and where of Luke 21. Did Jesus teach one in public and the other in private? If Luke was so diligent about recording Luke 1:1-4 and Luke 21:37-38,then why would he miss such an important transition from public to private and from the Temple to the Mt of Olives?)

Mar 4:34 And He did not speak to them without a parable. Privately, however, He would explain everything to His own disciples.

(There were patterns in Jesus’ teaching that reflected the public teaching and the private explanation. See also Matt 13:36)

(My point would be that Matthew 24 is part of a private explanation of what was taught in public in Matthew 23 and Luke20-21.)

(Now just so you know I’m not trying to hide anything, the weakest part of my argument that I am still working through is the apparent parallelism in structure between the three accounts of Luke 21, Matthew 24, Mark 13. Though there are significant variations, particularly in the discussion of armies surrounding Jerusalem verses the abomination of desolation. Did Jesus really explain it to the disciples using the same general outline? In other instances there were more marks that were indicative of explanation, but that doesn’t mean that Matthew and mark are devoid of the either.)

Mat 24:8 All these events are the beginning of birth pains.

Mar 13:8 …These are the beginning of birth pains.

(This explanation is not recorded in Luke)

Mat 24:15 …let the reader understand.
Mark 13:14 …let the reader understand.

(This admonishment to understand the meaning is not recorded in Luke.)

Mat 24:9 "Then they will…
Mar 13:9 …They will…

Vs.

Luk 21:12 But before all these things, they will….

(The timing is opposite in Luke.)

(Matt24:22-28 parallels Mark 13:20-23. And where these are supposed to parallel with Luke, there is one verse, Luke 21:24. Rather than speaking of the necessity to cut the days short or to watch out for false christs, Luke simply speaks of the time of the Gentiles. One could say that Matthew and mark provide new and different information as an explanation thus showing that in at least three places Jesus is providing explanation while no such explanations are available in Luke 21 other than Luke’s observation of verses 37-38.)

(There are also a lot of things in Luke that are not recorded in Matthew or Mark or are recorded differently. Some have argued that Luke was more precise and that he just interpreted it all for us? Is this your Bible? Is this your Bible where the very disciples cannot write what Jesus meant and that an outsider like Luke is able to do an investigation into these matters per the thesis of the book and have more inspired and clearer words from the Holy Spirit? Rather than deal with these oddities and uncomfortable doctrinal issues that comparing these passages brings up, is it not more likely that Jesus had plenty of opportunity to teach what I takes you 5 minutes to read many times in one day if needed? Isn’t it more likely that Jesus took whatever time remained in his sojourn on earth to explain not only answer their questions but to explain it ten times over if need be? We do know as a fact that Jesus spoke of these things at least one more time. Luke 17:22-37 records a similar teaching. )

…recognize that He is near--at the door!
Mat 24:34 I assure you: This generation will certainly not pass away until all these things take place.

…know that He is near--at the door!
Mar 13:30 I assure you: This generation will certainly not pass away until all these things take place.

Vs.

…recognize that the kingdom of God is near.
Luk 21:32 I assure you: This generation will certainly not pass away until all things take place.

(So my main point would not to convince you that “this generation†is speaking literally of a 1st century generation in one place and of the generation that sees these things happen in another as others have argued from context. No, my point would be to show you that you can also not say that they are definitely the same generation on the basis of the variations between Luke 21 and the private teachings on Matthew 24 and Mark 13.)
 
Hi Cameron,

I knew there was another post from you tha I wanted to comment on and I couldn't find it. You present this well again.

For instance, as a person leaning in the partial preterist direction, please do lay out for exactly where the division is between the past and the future from today? Where is you gap? Futurists have theirs in Daniel, while some preterists have it in Matthew 24 others put all of Matthew 24-25 in the past. But no partial preterist puts all of Revelation in the past. Just where is your division so that we can analyze it? Chapter 19? Chapter 20?

I think partial preterists consider that Jesus came spiritually in 70 AD to impart judgment on Jerusalem and then somehow returns again , physically this time, as futurists teach. They dont consider all things happening at that first coming in judgment. For instance they would not say that there was a resurrection at that time even tho they conssider 70 AD to be the great tribulation.

Boy, I hope I'm not messing that up.

I can tell you how I see the thing. I am a middle of the road protestant who is not of the evangelic type.
The rebellion of Jerusalem was indeed the great tribulation and that was followed by the coming of the son of man. This occurred in the invisible spiritual and heavenly realm and that is where the resurrections of the dead took place. At that time Jesus established the Kingdom of Heaven and made tit possible for all mankind to immediately receive their eternal life in heaven at physical death. Therefore the parousia was the origonal second coming and now the second coming is experienced by each person at their physical death. At that time they are judged righteous or wicked and are raised to eternal 'life' in heaven or raised to be condemned to the second death.

1) They are part of Scripture. Daniel 8 and Daniel 7 both speak of a “little horn†arising but they arise in different empires in each chapter. This correlates to what Jesus said in Matthew 24:15 about understanding the abomination. He knew at that time that one was past ad one was yet future.

In Daniel 12 we see:

11 "From the time that the daily sacrifice is abolished and the abomination that causes desolation is set up, there will be 1,290 days.

The sacrifices ceased in that temple in 70 AD maybe before , the abomination was 1290 days from that event. There is no reason to use 1698 BC as a fulfillmetnt when there is fulfillment right there in the temple that Jesu and His deciples just walked out of.

When Jesus said this He was talking future for the abomination so why would the last episode mean anything.

2) This speaks to the principle of types. How a thing in the past can represent in a small way something greater. For instance on of the images in Revelation regarding “great†Babylon and Jesus coming like a thief in the night (Rev. 16:12-5) were fulfilled at a smaller scale with literal Babylon and Cyrus. He dried up the Euphrates and snuck into the city at night like a thief and overthrew it suddenly.

Again when we have a perfectly clear convesation by Jesus Christ Himself, why would we want to cloud the issue with other less clear verses and interpretations that can lead us anywhere?

3) There is no reason to thing that prophecies about the second coming will be fulfilled differently that that of the1st. Many were completely fulfilled literally in Jesus. Although there was application to the contemporary audience, whether it was a name or a virgin birth or a suffering servant or riding a donkey.

There really is no reason to think either way, Just read the words of the OLivet Discourse and compare reconciling verses.

Therefore, when one considers all these factors it is no small step to see the fall of Jerusalem as a type at the beginning of the Church Age as a type of the fall of the world at the beginning of the Millennial Kingdom. For to severe the literal fulfillment from its foreshadowed precursor tantamount to denying that God can fulfill prophecy as literally as He did regarding the 1st coming.

God could fill prophecy any way He choses which does include the 70 AD scenario. There are mega verses to indicate that.

Another problem with preterism and when a literal and spiritual fulfillment is required is as it applies to Daniel’s 70 Sevens. There are three significant dates that need to be reckoned with:

The end of the 69th Seven
The midpoint of the last Seven
The End of the entire 70 Sevens

Preterists seem stumble on this one. Where do they put the beginning of Jesus ministry? Were do they put the crucifixion? Some want the crucifixion to be the end all of the 70 sevens but then they are forced to call the beginning of Jesus ministry at the baptism an abomination of desolation and there is no 7-year covenant that Jesus made3 ½ years before that time.

I dont have any of those problems. I don't have to unravel any prophecy of Daniel because the time has past and it is all revealed to me in scripture. We all know when Jesus was born, we all know when Jesus was crucified and I am comfortable with the explanation of the parousia so I don't have to unravel that prophecy.

Another choice is equally unsavory. If the crucifixion is t the midpoint then how is it reconciled with being called and abomination even by Jesus in Matthew 24:15? And what significant ground breaking event happened 3 ½ years after the crucifixion to complete the entire 70 Sevens? This one is even worse, for then one would have to admit that Jesus’ sacrifice did not fulfill the 6 things of Daniel 9:24, but they had to wait another 3 ½ years for fulfillment.

If the crucifixion doesnt fit the midpoint then it isn't, if no event happened 3.5 years after this or that then the interpretation of the prophecy is wrong. Jesus sacrifice wasn't intended to fix the six things in Daniel 9:24.

Both of these choices ignore the clear wording of Daniel’s text, which says after the 69th Seven the Messiah is cut off. That leaves another seven to be completed. And it is that final seven that completes the six things listed in Daniel 9:24, not the 69th. And regarding continuity, nothing happened 3 ½ or 7 years later. No record of a seven-year covenant either.

As far as clear wording of Daniels text, I don't think I agree with that. I'm sure you have read the countless explanations of Daniels 70 weeks just like I have. If it was so clear I don't think the 2 Billion Christians would have come up with the 2 billion and 5 interpretations.

Again I say that the six things of Daniel 9:24 were never a prophecy, but a directive to have accomplished in either 70 weeks from Daniels time or 490 years(possibly a dozen other angles) and the people never obeyed. It was never done and on earth never will be. That is for the heavenly realm...sin will be no more, up there on earth that won't happen.

Only the near/far perspective of futurism gives sanity to this passage.

Well, this verse eliminates near/far and injects one time only as per the things that must pass within this generation.

21For then there will be great distress, unequaled from the beginning of the world until nwâ€â€and never to be equaled again.

noble6
 
The rebellion of Jerusalem was indeed the great tribulation and that was followed by the coming of the son of man. This occurred in the invisible spiritual and heavenly realm and that is where the resurrections of the dead took place. At that time Jesus established the Kingdom of Heaven and made tit possible for all mankind to immediately receive their eternal life in heaven at physical death. Therefore the parousia was the origonal second coming and now the second coming is experienced by each person at their physical death. At that time they are judged righteous or wicked and are raised to eternal 'life' in heaven or raised to be condemned to the second death.

This appears to me to be more of a full-preterist understanding that would say we are living in the era of the New Earth and New Universe so that all of Revelation is past in the symbolic and spiritual sense that resulted in the earthly realm in the form of 29-70AD; Jesus’ ministry, the evangelizing of the Roman world and the destruction of the core of the Jewish/Israeli cultus in 70AD due to spiritual harlotry. Full-preterism is more hermeneutically consistent and does not need to waver in the false division in Scripture, however, you should be aware of the fact that there are many who would consider full-preterism almost heretical. If you are going to go down this path, then you should explore it and its resulting impact on your placement within the pale of orthodoxy. Since I do not adhere to that understanding I have not explored its impact in detail on the established creeds that codify what the Bible teaches as the definition of Christianity.

One of the problems as I’ve espoused with any form of preterism does deal with its uneven method of interpretation regarding the 1st vs. the 2nd Coming. I would offer to you and any preterist to grapple with the question as to why would God fulfill prophecies about the 1st Coming differently than He would with the 2nd Coming. Why should one be fulfilled literally while the other is only spiritually and awaits another world? Sure, I understand that Jesus said that His kingdom was not of this world, but one must reconcile the “seemingly seamless†gaps found in many OT prophecies where one half was fulfilled physically and the other half only spiritually. Consider its application on Isaiah 9:6-7

Isa 9:6 For to us a child is born, to us a son is given; and the government shall be upon his shoulder, and his name shall be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace.
Isa 9:7 Of the increase of his government and of peace there will be no end, on the throne of David and over his kingdom, to establish it and to uphold it with justice and with righteousness from this time forth and forevermore. The zeal of the LORD of hosts will do this.
 
:roll: These crazy dual posts. It always takes 2 or 3 or more minutes to post on this server and other servers just 5 or 10 seconds! :crazyeyes:
 
Re: Daniel 9:24-27
I dont have any of those problems. I don't have to unravel any prophecy of Daniel because the time has past and it is all revealed to me in scripture. We all know when Jesus was born, we all know when Jesus was crucified and I am comfortable with the explanation of the parousia so I don't have to unravel that prophecy.

Please check my post in the Bible Study forum in response to your post stating that you believed that the 70 Sevens did not come to pass. As I mentioned there, the hones is on you to demonstrate that the 70 Sevens where conditional especially in light of the fact that events up to the 69th Seven and beyond (70 AD) were fulfilled literally.
 
The sacrifices ceased in that temple in 70 AD maybe before , the abomination was 1290 days from that event. There is no reason to use 1698 BC as a fulfillmetnt when there is fulfillment right there in the temple that Jesu and His deciples just walked out of.

When Jesus said this He was talking future for the abomination so why would the last episode mean anything.

You ask why would the last episode of 168 BC be significant?

Question back at you: When Jesus tells the disciples to go back to Daniel and understand what was said about the abomination of desolation did he exclude 168 BC?

Mat 24:15 "So when you see the abomination of desolation spoken of by the prophet Daniel, standing in the holy place (let the reader understand),

What would a Jew that keeps Hanukah think of when they hear the phrase “abomination of desolation …standing in the holy place� What is the natural course of their understanding? Is it not 168 BC? Is it not when Antiochus Epiphanies slaughtered a pig on the altar and set up an image to be worshipped on pang of death?

Does any of the imagery of 168 BC sound familiar to the imagery of Revelation 13? And yet was any of this imagery fulfilled in the events surrounding 70 AD? If the destruction of Jerusalem was literal then why is consistency not maintained to apply to the defined understanding of the abomination of desolation?

Did Jesus not intend for the two; 168 BC and the future to not be correlated together? If this was our Lord’s expressed intention, where is it evident in the Gospels?

So the proper question is not why 168 BC was significant, but rather why would we avoid to make it significant when Jesus did not separate the understanding of one from the other? This is the question that needs to answered by those who would separate on AOD of Daniel from the other AOD of Daniel.
 
Hi Cameron,

Did the sacrifices cease when the temple was destroyed?

Was the Holy Place gone when the temple was destroyed?

Did Judea cease to exist as a district in 70 AD?

Did armies surround Jerusalem in the rebellion which destroyed the temple?

Did you read the proof that the armies surrounding Jerusalem parallels the abomination statement of Mark and Matthew. That is extremely strong biblical evidence.? The prophecies of Daniel have to be interpreted by man and as I've mentioned before, how many billion conclussions have so-called Christians arrived at regarding Daniels prophecies.

You put emphasis on Daniel, I use the word of Christ. It seems easier to me. If Daniel doesn't appear to be agreeing with what Jesus says, I'd guess what people are puting in Daniel's prophecy is what is incorrect.

So the proper question is not why 168 BC was significant, but rather why would we avoid to make it significant when Jesus did not separate the understanding of one from the other?

Why would He have to? Jesus does lay out what happens, it is only that some chose not to take what He actually says.

It is this generation ...
the end of the world is at the time of the crucifixion........
When your eathly body is destroyed, you get a new spiritual body in Heaven for eternity.......
The end comes afte the godspel is preached.........Paul says it is.....

Paul says we will not all be changed....did he lie to his readers or was he telling the inspired word of God?

I'd say those things are significant.

Question back at you: When Jesus tells the disciples to go back to Daniel and understand what was said about the abomination of desolation did he exclude 168 BC?

He didn't include it either, but Daniel also said the sacrifices woud cease 1290 days after the abomination. Sacrifices never ceased in 168 at all. You mention that a pig was sacrificed at that time for example. Sacrifices carried on in that temple until it was destroyed which was in fact near the time that the Roman army surrounded Jerusalem.

How do you deal with all these conditions?

noble6
 
Proponents of preterism seem to selectively recall certain facts regarding the history of the Jewish rebellion. Somehow the end of Jerusalem is perceived as the end of the Jews and their desires. Polycarp (the Apostle John’s disciple) was a victim of Jewish persecution almost half a century after the fall of Jerusalem. The Jewish revolt at Masada continued to pester the Romans until 132 AD. The early Church fathers continued to discuss what was and is meant by 666 as evidenced in Irenaeus’ writings (He was the disciple of Polycarp). The ante-nicean fathers/pastors/ bishops/leaders/shepherds, when they wrote about these subjects, continued to look for a future Antichrist that would persecute the Church. What men better exemplified 2 Timothy 2:2?

As I have explained elsewhere, 70 AD was a parallel to 586 BC. Both temple destructions occurred on there same day, Tish b’av. Both involved armies and the destruction of wayward people. What is found lacking in 70 AD is the other half of the parallel to what Jesus spoke of in Matthew 24:15. Daniel spoke of two different abominations of the Temple, one to mirror the other in like kind just as there were to be two “little hornsâ€Â. The “little horn†of chapter 7 occurs in the 4th empire, while the “little horn of chapter 8, occurs in the 3rd empire. The abomination of desolation of chapter 8 and 11:31 refer to the event that occurred during the 3rd empire while the abomination of desolation of chapter 9 and 12 are found lacking in similarity of fulfillment in 70 AD. You’ve got the empire right, but its structure wrong. Daniel 2 is clear about there being 10 toes and 7 is clear about how these ten are ultimately transformed into 8 with the arrival of the “little hornâ€Â. None of the parallels find match in 70 AD. The type of AoD (Abomination of Desolation) in 168 BC involved setting up an image and forcing people to worship it upon pang of death. No such thing occurred in 70 AD. It is a disconnect of types, that preterists seemingly are willing to overlook.

The alignment of sequences you purport for Luke 21 to Matthew 24 and Mark 13 are also found lacking in the details, or perhaps the trivialities of language. Perhaps to a preterist “before†does equate to “afterâ€Â. I’m not willing to ignore the variation of timing between Luke 21:12 and Matthew 24:9. I’ve already showed you how Matthew and Mark’s accounts have explanatory phrases and sections in a couple of places just as one might understand Jesus’ pattern of Mark 4:34. I’ve already shown to you how Luke, who claims to be so careful in Luke 1:1-4 seems to be careful again by carefully defining the place of Jesus teaching by declaring in Luke 20:1 and Luke 21:37-38 that Jesus taught in the temple during the day and does not even suggest that Jesus ever left the Temple, while in stark contrast, both Matthew and Mark place their accounts in private and on the Mt of Olives when presumably it was night.

Regarding “this generationâ€Â, I’ve already demonstrated that one can say “this is the man†and then “when you see this man, avoid him†so show how “this†is dependant upon context and that Jesus’ words about “this generation†were applicable to future things.

Regarding the “we†of 1 Cor 15:52, I explained that it was simply an all inclusive “we†just as Paul used it of the body of Christ in Romans 12:4-5.

Regarding the idea of “the whole world†in Col. 1:23, I demonstrated how that is a hyperbole for all the world that Paul knew, particularly in light of its context of Col. 1:16 where it is literally used of all the space-time continuum. Sure it can have narrow and broad symbolic meanings that are dependant on context, like Luke 2 of the Roman world. But that interpretation is a 21st Century one, for both the Romans and Paul only knew of the world as flat earth with edges and corners sitting on pillars/turtle/Atlas/elephants… and that Rome had seemingly conquered 100% of it. So what they “meant†is paramountâ€Â, they meant the whole globe in our 21st Century sense.

Regarding the desolation of the Temple, it is not the physical building made with hands of men that is important according to Hebrews 8. It is the temple in Heaven, the true and real temple not made by corrupt and fallen hands with corrupt and fallen stuff. The rituals never solved anything and the perpetual need reflected the symbolic work effort that Christ, our supreme High Priest in the order of Mel overcame and completed once for all. All the cultus was only ever to point to Jesus and the New Covenant. The AoD is not so much the stopping of the sacrifices or the smearing of blood of unclean animals but it is was is meant that is the issue. It is more of the statue that replaced God. It is what the act means, not the physical act that is the affront to God. That is why, a Temple devoid of God glory in 168 BC can have an abomination of desolation. The collateral damage is the stopping of sacrifice and offering. It is a misunderstanding of what the Temple is, whether a building or body to assume that if either one is physically defiled that God is somehow kicked out of it like a petty deity of the nations or exercised out of it like a fallen angel. God does not live in houses built by man. But He has used them in the past as focal point for meeting, when he has come physically in the cloud to meet with His elect as often occurred in the Wilderness.

Regarding the coming in the clouds in vengeance such as in Matthew 26:64, is quite fine and can be symbolically understood as it has been applied a couple of times in the OT. However, the type of coming portrayed by Jesus in the Olivet Discourse is a 2-part which includes the “meeting with the electâ€Â, something that is lacking in the symbolic language used in the OT. In fact, when God comes in the clouds to meet with His elect, it is physical and literal and visible. Sometimes it is the whirlwind like in Job, sometimes it in the dark fog of the Mt of transfiguration, sometimes it is in the pillar of cloud before the Tabernacle, sometimes it is the cloud coming down of Mt. Sinai, sometimes it is a the glory witnessed by Ezekiel and sometimes the Shekaneh that overwhelmed the priests in Solomon’s day. The overwhelming OT usage of God coming in a cloud is literal and physical to meet with His elect in some way.

He didn't include it either, but Daniel also said the sacrifices woud cease 1290 days after the abomination. Sacrifices never ceased in 168 at all. You mention that a pig was sacrificed at that time for example. Sacrifices carried on in that temple until it was destroyed which was in fact near the time that the Roman army surrounded Jerusalem.

You should learn about what Hanukah is and what God did before you make a sill, false statement like this.

Regarding that Jesus didn’t included it is equally absurd. My kids try to pull that one on my by trying to get around what I ask them to do sometimes Clearly, you do not want to accept that Jesus meant for “you†to understand all the applications of the AoD to what He spoke of.

I’m not trying to be mean :evil: , but please get your facts straight before claiming them. :angel:

Ultimately, it is preterism that is divisive. Futurism, particularly pre-wrath is one of amalgamation and can accept, adopt and incorporate many components of other views into its overall doctrinal structure including bridging the gap between the obvious problems of pre-trib and post-trib. No one denies the significance of historic events such as 70 AD or 132 AD or 325 AD or 1517 AD or 1948 AD. Futurism can adopt components of spiritualistic/idealistic/recurrent theme understandings and still remain true to the core. Futurism can accept the near and also incomplete and foreshadowed fulfillments of certain “preterist†things that will yet await complete literal and physical fulfillments. It is simply the pattern of the Bible that has already been plain and evident to all though the manner of the fulfillments of the 1st Coming.

Isa 9:6 For to us a child is born, to us a son is given; and the government shall be upon his shoulder, and his name shall be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace.
Isa 9:7 Of the increase of his government and of peace there will be no end, on the throne of David and over his kingdom, to establish it and to uphold it with justice and with righteousness from this time forth and forevermore. The zeal of the LORD of hosts will do this.

Passages like combine both aspects of near/far and 1st vs 2nd Coming. Isaiah’s word had application to the original audience and they may have perceived that time lapse of at least 700 years for the literal and physical fulfillment of the part dealing with the 1st Coming. The same is true of the Second part, since I believe that God is not capricious about language, making one word to be literal and the next spiritual on a whim. No, based on the fact that Jesus did fulfill prophecies literally, like ridding on a donkey, I can firmly expect that God will fulfill the remainder of this passage just as literally! There is no reason to think of the 2nd Coming any differently than the 1st.
 
noblej6 said:
... Sacrifices never ceased in 168 at all. You mention that a pig was sacrificed at that time for example. Sacrifices carried on in that temple until it was destroyed which was in fact near the time that the Roman army surrounded Jerusalem.

How do you deal with all these conditions?

noble6
Cameron said:
That is why, a Temple devoid of God glory in 168 BC can have an abomination of desolation. The collateral damage is the stopping of sacrifice and offering.
Maybe this will shed a little light on whether or not sacrifices ceased, at least for a while, in 168 B.C.

Cleansing and Dedication of the Temple
1 Maccabees Ch. 4
36 Then Judas and his brothers said, "See, our enemies are crushed; let us go up to cleanse the sanctuary and dedicate it."
37 So all the army assembled and went up to Mount Zion.
38 There they saw the sanctuary desolate, the altar profaned, and the gates burned. In the courts they saw bushes sprung up as in a thicket, or as on one of the mountains. They saw also the chambers of the priests in ruins.
39 Then they tore their clothes and mourned with great lamentation; they sprinkled themselves with ashes
40 and fell face down on the ground. And when the signal was given with the trumpets, they cried out to Heaven.
41 Then Judas detailed men to fight against those in the citadel until he had cleansed the sanctuary.
42 He chose blameless priests devoted to the law,
43 and they cleansed the sanctuary and removed the defiled stones to an unclean place.
44 They deliberated what to do about the altar of burnt offering, which had been profaned.
45 And they thought it best to tear it down, so that it would not be a lasting shame to them that the Gentiles had defiled it. So they tore down the altar, 46 and stored the stones in a convenient place on the temple hill until a prophet should come to tell what to do with them.
47 Then they took unhewnd stones, as the law directs, and built a new altar like the former one.
48 They also rebuilt the sanctuary and the interior of the temple, and consecrated the courts.
49 They made new holy vessels, and brought the lampstand, the altar of incense, and the table into the temple.
50 Then they offered incense on the altar and lit the lamps on the lampstand, and these gave light in the temple.
51 They placed the bread on the table and hung up the curtains. Thus they finished all the work they had undertaken.
I can't say how long the timespan was between this and the start of the desecration, but it must have been some time...
In the courts they saw bushes sprung up as in a thicket,
It takes some time for this to happen.

I'm not even sure how long it took them to restore the Temple to where it was suitable for a Dedication.
 
Hi Vic,

Wouldnt this be talking about the first temple that was destoyed? I haven't spent much time on such things soI don't know, but that is what a quick look says to me.

noble6
 
Hi Cameron,

Here is a part from your post that I dont understand what you are getting at.

Perhaps to a preterist “before†does equate to “afterâ€Â. I’m not willing to ignore the variation of timing between Luke 21:12 and Matthew 24:9. I’ve already showed you how Matthew and Mark’s accounts have explanatory phrases and sections in a couple of places just as one might understand Jesus’ pattern of Mark 4:34.

Let's go over this timing thing between Luke and Matthew again.

First Mark 4:34
34He did not say anything to them without using a parable. But when he was alone with his own disciples, he explained everything.

Regarding “this generationâ€Â, I’ve already demonstrated that one can say “this is the man†and then “when you see this man, avoid him†so show how “this†is dependant upon context and that Jesus’ words about “this generation†were applicable to future things.

I dont know what you are meaning with that verse, I just take it as it is written????

The before after of Luke and Matthew.

The conversation that Jesus had which was in response to the prophecy He made as they came out of the temple is talking about the future. Both writers reflect that in what they wrote.

Matthew said:

15"Therefore when you see the ABOMINATION OF DESOLATION which was spoken of through Daniel the prophet, standing in the holy place (let the reader understand),

16then those who are in Judea must flee to the mountains.

21"For then there will be a great tribulation, such as has not occurred since the beginning of the world until now, nor ever will.

29"But immediately after the tribulation of those days THE SUN WILL BE DARKENED, AND THE MOON WILL NOT GIVE ITS LIGHT, AND THE STARS WILL FALL from the sky, and the powers of the heavens will be shaken.

30"And then the sign of the Son of Man will appear in the sky, and then all the tribes of the earth will mourn, and they will see the SON OF MAN COMING ON THE CLOUDS OF THE SKY with power and great glory.


34"Truly I say to you, this generation will not pass away until all these things take place.

So the order of events leading up to the coming of the son of man are as follows:

1) Verse 15
15"Therefore when you see the ABOMINATION OF DESOLATION.....
2)the flight of the people,,,verse 16

3) the great tribulation

4)the celestial happenings......

THE SUN WILL BE DARKENED, AND THE MOON WILL NOT GIVE ITS LIGHT, AND THE STARS WILL FALL from the sky, and the powers of the heavens will be shaken.

30"And then the sign of the Son of Man will appear in the sky,

5)and they will see the SON OF MAN COMING ON THE CLOUDS OF THE SKY with power and great glory.

That is the order of the events and it really is not an arguable point. Sure there is fine details withing this sequence which we glean from Revelation and elsewhere, but these are the words of Jesus Christ Himself. They should mean something.

NOw for the timing of Luke.However, to prove the very obvious I will list the order of event in the reverse for clarity.

5) 27"Then they will see THE SON OF MAN COMING IN A CLOUD with power and great glory.

Correlates with Matthew exactly and there is only one parousia.

4) 25"There will be signs in sun and moon and stars, and on the earth dismay among nations, in perplexity at the roaring of the sea and the waves,

the celestial happenings.........

3) 22because these are days of vengeance, so that all things which are written will be fulfilled

Because the great tribulation is BEFORE the parousia this nescessarily is the great tribulation as Matthew refers to it.

2)the flight out of Judea.
21"Then those who are in Judea must flee to the mountains

This is the exact same conversation that Luke is describing here.There is no doubt about it. Futurists have to derail the meaning somehow because the verse from Luke that equates with the abomination line in Matthew absolutely says:

1) 20"But when you see Jerusalem surrounded by armies, then recognize that her desolation is near.

Besides that Luke adds this statement:

22because these are days of vengeance, so that all things which are written will be fulfilled.

Luke explains that what the bible is predicting concerning the Great tribulation....this is it!

So what is this before after stuff youwere talking about. Show me where the armies do not equal the abomination.
Also thereis still the 1290 days between the abomination and the ceasing of the daily sacriice. There have been no sacrifices lately in the Christianity religion. So if they have ceased the abomination was within 1290 days of that.

You made mention that the temple and therefore the Holy Place that this abomination could appear in could be the body. No, it can't. The temple of Hebrews 9 that Jesus went to is the heavenly Most Holy place. Abominations can't get in to Heaven and nothing can desolatee it.
That's out.

You made reference to the conversation being in different plaaces or whatever. Obviously not unless Christ decided to repeat it to the guys. When they talk about the coming it is the parousia and there is only one paousia so it is the same conversation.

Where is Judea to flee from? Where is the Holy Place?

Regarding “this generationâ€Â, I’ve already demonstrated that one can say “this is the man†and then “when you see this man, avoid him†so show how “this†is depenant upon context and that Jesus’ words about “this generation†were applicable to future things.

Of course you can also say THIS generation and mean THIS generation.

noble6
 
Hi Cameron,
Here is an interesting point from your post that I missed.

No, based on the fact that Jesus did fulfill prophecies literally, like ridding on a donkey, I can firmly expect that God will fulfill the remainder of this passage just as literally! There is no reason to think of the 2nd Coming any differently than the 1st.

Why would Jesus appearing in the spiritual heavenly realm not be a 'literal' fulfillment. If that is what He does, that is what He does. That would also be literal. What isn't literal is Jesus standing on Mt. Zion and it splits in two. That would be symbolic meaning some of the people accepted Him and some did not. The symbolic splitting of the beliefs of the people when Jesus was here.

Any thoughts on why every eye sees Jesus returning , but nobody says "There He is."

noble6
 
noblej6 said:
Hi Vic,

Wouldnt this be talking about the first temple that was destoyed? I haven't spent much time on such things soI don't know, but that is what a quick look says to me.

noble6
Hi noble,

This is the one desolation many people neglect, or just don't know about; since it is in the Apocrypha and not in the OT. It happened arount 168 B.C., during the aprox. 400 year 'silent' period. What you are thinking of is the destruction of the Temple by the Babylonians, under the rule of Nebuchadnezzar. What Antiochus did was not a full blown desrtuction of the Temple; it was however a desecration. The Temple didn't require a rebuilding; it did require a 'restoration' and cleansing.
 
This web site provides good background to the events of 168 BC from a Jewish perspective.

http://www.chabad.org/holidays/chanukah ... AID=102816

Here's an excerpt:

Now the Maccabees returned to Jerusalem to liberate it. They entered the Temple and cleared it of the idols placed there by the Syrian vandals. Yehuda and his followers built a new altar, which he dedicated on the twenty-fifth of the month of Kislev, in the year 3622.

Since the golden Menorah had been stolen by the Syrians, the Maccabees now made one of cheaper metal. When they wanted to light it, they found only a small cruse of pure olive oil bearing the seal of the High Priest Yochanan. It was sufficient to light only for one day. By a miracle of G-d, it continued to burn for eight days, till new oil was made available. That miracle proved that G-d had again taken His people under His protection. In memory of this, our sages appointed these eight days for annual thanksgiving and for lighting candles.
 
You suggest the sequence is the same between Matthew and Luke. I suggest that it is different, and that from this point in the accounts one is about the “near†and the other about the “far†application.

Jesus begins with the ultimate dissolution of things, but in Luke, since He is speaking to a mixed crowd, changes from the ultimate to the precursor in Luke 21:12 to lay a pattern. But in Matthew, he is in private discourse with his “Church†core and finding no reason to change from the discussion of ultimate fulfillments continues on to speak of the things that will happen afterwards.

Luk 21:12 But1161 before4253 all537 these,5130 they shall lay1911…

vs.

Mat 24:9 Then5119 shall they deliver you up3860, 5209 to be


G4253 πρό pro
Thayer Definition:
1) before

vs.

G5119 τότε tote
Thayer Definition:
1) then
2) at that time

It is these differences:
1) the tense in these passages
2) the added explanatory components in Matthew
3) the location of the discourse
4) the variations of the critical things that follow (desolation of Jerusalem and time of Gentiles vs. the abomination of the Temple and times spoken of Daniel’s people) that identify the near/far applications.
5) I could add to the principle of spiritual, then physical fulfillment. You claim that it may be OK for the literal fulfillment to be a spiritual one. I say that does not follow the Biblical pattern. We, now, only have a down-payment of the spirit; we still sin. Positionally, before God, we re righteous because of Christ. That is a spiritual reality. But even you cannot say that we shall remain in this fallen state forever, existing only with a spiritual reality. God’s intention is clear when He ,made Adam and in the manner Jesus rose form he dead. The Practical aspect of our salvation will catch up to the positional. In other words, the physical will catch up with the spiritual. This pattern speaks of Christ’s kingdom now and it’s inevitable physical reality later.

Also thereis still the 1290 days between the abomination and the ceasing of the daily sacriice. There have been no sacrifices lately in the Christianity religion. So if they have ceased the abomination was within 1290 days of that.

That is incorrect. There is a 1290-day effect that remains as a result of the abomination.

Dan 12:11 And from the time that the regular burnt offering is taken away and the abomination that makes desolate is set up, there shall be 1,290 days.
It does not say here that the desolation will last 1290 days, just that there is a 1290 period that finds its source from the time that the temple is desolated. The sacrifices and the temple are only desolated exactly 1260. That leaves an additional 30-day for its affect to remain.

Dan 9:27 And he shall make a strong covenant with many for one week, and for half of the week he shall put an end to sacrifice and offering…

The sacrifices are ended exactly after 1260 days and not one day more. How else could the most Holy be anointed as a result of the full completion of the 70 Sevens.

Dan 9:24 "Seventy weeks are decreed … to anoint a most holy place.

You may claim that the 70 Sevens were just a conditional prophecy or decree, but that claim is entirely unfounded. It is pure conjecture and an imposition of a thought that is not present in the context. The fact is, that when the 1260 days of desolation are over, then the 70 Sevens are complete. The two are inextricably linked together and separating them from one another by claiming that the desolation happened but the 70 Sevens were not completed or failed to be completed is ... words fail me. I can only encourage you to reconsider and admit that you don’t have a good answer and keep looking into it with an open mind.

So when I speak of that additional 30-day effect, I also see it spoken of here in the last half of Daniel 9:27

Dan 9:27 … And on the wing of abominations shall come one who makes desolate, until the decreed end is poured out on the desolator."

It is the desolator that lasts for another 30 days while his desolation ended when the most holy was anointed. Since the desolation would occur on Mt. Zion, this means that the Temple was purified on Mt. Zion and the desolator has been effected from Mt. Zion to have decrees poured out on Him.

Over and over again we see how God reigns from Zion in the sense of a MK. Psalm 110, was a favorite of the early Church finding both a spiritual and physical application. In Rev. 11:18 the nations are enraged and ultimately march on Mt. Zion to try and retake it at Armageddon. As Psalm 110 notes, He rules in the midst of His enemies and will strike through the kings. In Daniel 2, God’s Kingdom is the stone that starts small (in Zion) and grows to fill the whole earth by terminating all the kingdoms (represented by the nations at Armageddon) into dust.

This is why the word “poured†is also so critical, for these last bowls/vials of Revelation are poured out in 100% wrath against the nations and one in particular is saved for the desolator. Remember the bowls come after the trumpets; after the time that Jesus has begun to reign Revelation 11:15.

You say that the Mt of Olives splitting in Zech 14:4 is a spiritual picture of something based on subjective opinion. I say that it had perhaps spiritual application to the target audience and that it has a physical application to the 2nd Coming just as many others did to the first.

Zec 14:4 On that day his feet shall stand on the Mount of Olives that lies before Jerusalem on the east, and the Mount of Olives shall be split in two from east to west by a very wide valley, so that one half of the Mount shall move northward, and the other half southward. Zec 14:5 And you shall flee to the valley of my mountains, for the valley of the mountains shall reach to Azal.

The split is an opening through which the righteous can flee from the Kidron Valley. The Kidron Valley is located directly between Mt. Zion and the Temple and the Mt of Olives to the East. It is a place of graves today both Christians and Muslims believe that it is prophesied that God will return form that direction. The Muslims bury their dead to block the way to the eastern gate. The Christians buried their dead there closer to the Mount of Olives so that they could be the first of the dead to be raised to be with Jesus when He returns physically just as He left physically in the Ascension.

Act 1:9 And when he had said these things, as they were looking on, he was lifted up, and a cloud took him out of their sight.
Act 1:10 And while they were gazing into heaven as he went, behold, two men stood by them in white robes,
Act 1:11 and said, "Men of Galilee, why do you stand looking into heaven? This Jesus, who was taken up from you into heaven, will come in the same way as you saw him go into heaven."

Pre-tribbers are the ones who have Jesus floating around in the air in a secret coming. Pre-wrathers see the rapture as the first event of the 2nd Coming and that Jesus will do many deeds between this point and into the MK. As Revelation 7 points out, at this time, the dead and those still alive suddenly show up in Heaven and there is a group of 144,000 that are sealed. By revisiting Zechariah 14:4-5, we see that it appears that these 144,000 are being detained in the Kidron Valley and as spiritual virgins have refused to bow to anything other than God. The language is perfect in Daniel 9:27 that associated the abomination as on a wing or corner of Zion. For it that were so, one could stand in the Kidrom graveyard and look up to the Temple Mount and see the “Image of the Beastâ€Â. And as such, I see the 144,000 fulfilling the righteous deeds of Shadrach, Meshach and Abeendigo in Daniel 3 and they refuse to bow and are therefore condemned. But just as Jesus waked with them in the fire, He will protect them be with them through the fire to present them to God on Mt. Zion after the 7th Trumpet has blown to be the “firstfruits†(Rev. 14:4) of them to believe and receive the MK. He will reveal the truth to them in Zechariah 12:10. They will see their Messiah and believe and inherit and be saved.
 
Cameron said:
... By a miracle of G-d, it continued to burn for eight days, till new oil was made available. That miracle proved that G-d had again taken His people under His protection. In memory of this, our sages appointed these eight days for annual thanksgiving and for lighting candles.
Hence the Jewish holiday of... chanukah. ;-)
 
Hi Vic,

I am aware of Antiochus, but again haven't studied the finite details of that.

noble6
 
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